Answer:
Argon
Explanation:
One of the most common methods to date volcanic rocks uses potassium (radioactive parent) and argon (stable daughter)
Answer:
Radiocarbon dating
Explanation:
Carbon-14 dating is used to determine the age of volcanic rock
How many genders are there
Answer:
2
Explanation:
because Male and Female
Cross a plant that is heterozygous for axial flowers with a plant that has terminal flowers. What is the genotypic and phenotypic ratio
The progeny will have a 1:1 phenotypic ratio, with 50% of the offspring displaying axial flowers (Aa) and 50% displaying terminal flowers (aa).
When crossing a plant that is heterozygous for axial flowers (Aa) with a plant that has terminal flowers (aa), we need to consider the possible gametes that each parent can produce.
The heterozygous plant (Aa) can produce two types of gametes, one with the dominant allele A and one with the recessive allele a. The plant with terminal flowers (aa) can only produce gametes with the recessive allele a.
To determine the genotypic ratio of the offspring, we can use a Punnett square. The Punnett square will have two rows representing the possible gametes of each parent and two columns representing the possible alleles for the offspring.
A a
a Aa aa
a Aa aa
From the Punnett square, we can see that there are two possible genotypes for the offspring: Aa and aa. Each of these genotypes has a 50% chance of occurring. Therefore, the genotypic ratio of the offspring is 1:1 (Aa:aa).
To determine the phenotypic ratio of the offspring, we need to consider the expression of the dominant allele A. The dominant allele A causes axial flowers, while the recessive allele a causes terminal flowers. Since the heterozygous plant has one copy of the dominant allele A, it will exhibit the axial flower phenotype. Therefore, only the offspring with the aa genotype will exhibit the recessive terminal flower phenotype.
Thus, the phenotypic ratio of the offspring will be 1:1, with 50% of the offspring exhibiting axial flowers (Aa) and 50% exhibiting terminal flowers (aa).
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why are teenage girls at an increased risk for contracting sexually transmitted infections (stis)? they have an immature anatomy. they have lower levels of protective antibodies. they have both an immature anatomy and lower levels of protective antibodies. neither having an immature anatomy nor having lower levels of protective antibodies is able to explain the increased risk for stis.
Teenage girls are at an increased risk for contracting sexually transmitted infections (STIs) because they have both an immature anatomy and lower levels of protective antibodies.
STIs or sexually transmitted infections are illnesses passed on through sexual contact. There are at least 30 different sexually transmitted bacteria, viruses, and parasites. Among adolescents, the risk of getting an STI is particularly high.
They are more likely to get infected with STIs due to their increased engagement in sexual activity and the biological and behavioral characteristics of their sexual partners. During puberty, the female body undergoes several changes in response to hormones, including an increase in genital tissue and the production of vaginal discharge. The cervix, which serves as a protective barrier, has not yet fully matured, and cervical mucus is less effective at trapping and expelling infectious agents.
The lower level of protective antibodies in teenage girls also puts them at a higher risk for STIs. It's because antibodies are proteins that recognize and target harmful germs. Adolescents don't have the same quantity of protective antibodies in their blood as adults because they haven't been exposed to as many infectious agents. Based on the given information, teenage girls are at an increased risk for contracting STIs because they have both an immature anatomy and lower levels of protective antibodies.
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Which row from the table below would accurately place descriptors in the Venn Diagram?
The overlapping region representing cells and processes common to both sexual and asexual reproduction, the X region representing cells and processes related to sexual reproduction.
What is a description Venn diagram?A Venn diagram shows the connections between two or more data sets. Venn diagrams are frequently used to compare and contrast the traits of various data sets because they are particularly effective at emphasising similarities and contrasts.
What goes in the Venn diagram's inner circle?Normally, overlapping circles are used in Venn diagrams. The parts of the set are symbolically represented by the circle's interior, while its periphery indicates elements that are not part of the set.
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What is true about a secondary wave (S wave)?
Travels more slowly than a primary wave.
Travels quicker than a primary wave.
Travels the same speed of a primary wave.avels the same speed of a primary wave.
A true statement about a secondary wave (S wave) is that it travels more slowly than a primary wave (P wave). This is because S waves are transverse waves, meaning that they oscillate perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation, while P waves are longitudinal waves that oscillate parallel to the direction of wave propagation.
When the level of CO2 in the blood increases, the
A) pH of the blood goes up
B) receptors in the blood vessels sense the pH change
C) Medulla sends a signal to slow the breathing rate
D) all of these
Answer:
B) receptors in the blood vessels sense the pH change
Explanation:
When the level of CO2 in the blood increases, it forms carbonic acid and lowers the pH of the blood, which is detected by receptors in the blood vessels.
A cub will learn how to hunt by watching and copying its mother, which is a/an ___________ behavior.
Instinctive
Learned
Answer:
Learned behavior
Explanation:
Its really simple because if you are watching someone about what they are doing about something you don't know about its learned behavior. Like hunting, like the problem.
***hope it helps :-)
You combine 10ml of an acid with a pH of 5 with 10mL of a base with a pH of 9. What would the result of this reaction be? What is the new pH?
Determine the new pH:
pH = −log 0.0802 = 1.096
To two sig figs, the answer is 1.10.
When 10 mL of a powerful acid are combined with 10 mL?The temperature increases by 5oC when 10mL of a strong acid is introduced to 10mL of an alkali.
The temperature increases by 5oC when 10 mL of a strong acid and 10 mL of an alkali are combined.
When 5 mL of a strong base are added, the temperature of the 5 mL of a strong acid rises by 5oC.
If the solvent is 100 ml, then the mass of the solute will be either 10 gram or 10 ml since a 10% solution signifies that the solute is only 10% in the solution.
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Predict effect of the E2delG mutation on the resulting FGF5-S proteins. Justify your prediction
A glutamic acid (E) at position 2 of the FGF5-S protein is deleted as a result of the E2delG mutation.
Determine how the E2delG mutation will affect the resulting FGF5-S proteins. Defend your forecast.An acidic amino acid called glutamic acid participates in hydrogen bonding and electrostatic interactions both within and between proteins. This amino acid's removal is likely to affect the protein's ability to maintain its structural stability, which could result in a loss of function or a change in function. A secreted signalling protein called FGF5-S is involved in the growth and development of hair. The E2delG mutation has the potential to alter hair growth patterns by interfering with the protein's signalling function. Alternately, the mutation might speed up the protein's degradation, which would result in lower levels of FGF5-S overall and possibly have an effect on hair growth. To pinpoint the precise impact of this mutation on the resulting FGF5-S protein, additional research is necessary.
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Part 2: Why is this information important?
Understanding evolutionary relationships in animals has some implications for conservation and saving endangered species. Consider the story about Florida panthers
In 1995, the Florida panther was on the brink of extinction, there were only an estimated 30 panthers left and inbreeding has resulted in many genetic defects. Florida officials decided to save the animal by bringing to Florida eight Texas cougars. The move was not without criticism; the cougar and panther are not the same species and some argued that this wouldn’t save the panther, but would instead just create a new type of big cat. Recent studies suggest the program was a success, as it is now estimated that 200 panthers now roam Florida.
10. Climate change has scientists worried about the future of the polar bear. What lesson could we take from Florida’s effort to save the panther to apply to future conservation efforts with the polar bear?
Being an umbrella species, the Florida Panther serves as the hub of a ecological community in its environment. Florida's panther conservation indirectly helps the state's other fragile and endangered species of wildlife.
The introduction of Texas pumas made sense because they were the closest modern population to Florida and might potentially restore Florida panther genetic diversity. However, this action could have brought some hazards because it mixed individuals with different environmental adaptations.
Following the creation of a panther bounty in 1832, Florida panthers were subject to extensive hunting. The species was thought to be a hazard to people, cattle, and game animals by the middle of the 1950s. Currently, habitat loss, fragmentation, & degradation are the biggest threats to a remaining panther population.
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in describing prenatal development to her friends, michonne wants to identify the three main periods of prenatal development in order from conception to birth. michonne uses the following order: embryonic, germinal, and fetal fetal, embryonic, and germinal germinal, embryonic, and fetal germinal, fetal, and embryonic
Michonne should use the order germinal, embryonic, and fetal to accurately describe the three main periods of prenatal development.
Prenatal development begins with fertilisation and continues through the foetal stage of development until delivery. Prenatal development in human pregnancy is also known as antenatal development. Following fertilisation, the human embryo develops further throughout the foetal stage.
The germinal period is the first two weeks after conception, during which the fertilized egg implants in the uterus and begins to divide and form the placenta.
The embryonic period is from the third to the eighth week after conception, during which the major organs and structures of the body begin to develop.
The fetal period is from the ninth week after conception until birth, during which the fetus continues to grow and develop.
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transduction refers to the . group of answer choices disappearance of visual stimuli. translation of one form of energy to another. transmission of sensory signals to the cortex. perception of lights.
Transduction refers to the translation of one form of energy to another.
What is Transduction?Transduction is the method of converting a physical energy stimulus into an electrical signal that can be transmitted through the nervous system. It is the process of converting one form of energy into another, specifically, converting physical stimuli into an electrical signal that can be transported via the nervous system.
Transduction allows sensory neurons to detect energy, such as light or sound waves, and convert it into an electrical signal that is then transported to the central nervous system. This electrical signal can then be interpreted by the brain, allowing us to detect and perceive the world around us.
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compare your dna sequence from question 7 to that prepared by the others in the lab any variations did such variations occur in your answer to question 4 what is the reason for the difference are there any advantages to these variations what are they
The DNA sequence I prepared for question 7 was compared to those prepared by the others in the lab. Any variations that occurred in my answer to question 4 were due to differences in the base pairing of the two sequences. There could be some advantages to such variations, as different base pairings can lead to different biological functions.
To do this, I will need to carry out a comparative analysis between the DNA sequence that I have prepared and the ones that were prepared by others in the lab.
For the variations that occur in question 4, we will look at the reason for the differences. These variations can occur due to many reasons. The reason for the differences can be due to the presence of mutations in the DNA sequence. It can also be due to the presence of different alleles in the DNA sequence.
There are certain advantages to these variations. Some variations can provide organisms with an advantage in their environment, making it easier for them to survive. Variations can also be used to identify individuals in a population, making it easier to understand how populations change over time.
However, it is important to note that these variations can also lead to the development of diseases in humans. Some variations can also lead to the development of cancer, which is why it is important to monitor and study these variations carefully.
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What are the first four amino acids coded by this sequence
The codon AUG, often known as the start codon, designates methionine. As a result, when building proteins, methionine is the first amino acid to dock in the ribosome.
A codon sequence is what?(KOH-don) a DNA or RNA molecule that codes for a particular amino acid through a group of three successive nucleotides. Certain codons serve as translational start or stop signals. Start, stop, or termination codons are the names given to these.
Why are the amino acids in that order?It is well recognised that an amino acid sequence can reveal important biological information. For instance, the arrangement of amino acids in a particular protein can reveal information about the protein's 3-D structure, purpose, and evolution.
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Read the description of interphase at the bottom of the Gizmo. What happens to the cell at the beginning of interphase?
Click on the DNA in the nucleus of the cell. Describe what happens.
Why is it necessary for the cell to grow and duplicate its DNA before the start of meiosis?
Cells produce mRNA and proteins needed for DNA synthesis during in the G1 phase(interphase) of development.
Chromosomes are replicated during the S phase, and the cell will proceed to get ready for division during the G2 phase by synthesising more proteins and growing in size.
The protein content & organelle volume both rise when the cell actually expands during this first phase of interphase. Here, proteins and RNAs are created, as well as the centromere as well as other centrosome components (ribonucleic acids). After leaving interphase, the cell continues through mitosis to finish dividing.
(Read the description of interphase at the bottom of the Gizmo. What happens to the cell at the beginning of interphase?)
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Dominant or recessive are terms used to describe the inheritance patterns of certain traits and help to identify how certain phenotypes pass from parent to offspring.
True
False
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
Dominant traits are traits that have A alleles, which dominate and is expressed in the individual or thing. On the other hand, recessive traits have a alleles, and do not show up* (unless there is no dominant allele), but is still transferred as a possibility later on in the line.
This can be exemplified with the Punnett Square for offsprings. Take for example, A original parent with two dominant alleles, and another parent with one dominant and one recessive:
[tex]\left[\begin{array}{ccc}&A&A\\A&AA&AA\\a&Aa&Aa\end{array}\right][/tex]
In the given Punnett Square, the dominant trait is present for all potential offsprings, and therefore the dominant trait will show.
However, take for example mates in which a parent has one dominant allele and one recessive, while the other parent has two recessive:
[tex]\left[\begin{array}{ccc}&A&a\\a&Aa&aa\\a&Aa&aa\end{array}\right][/tex]
In this case, in the given Punnett Square, the dominant trait is present in 50% of potential offspring, while the recessive trait is visible in 50% of potential offsprings.
Therefore, dominant and recessive are used to identify phenotypes passed from parents to offspring, and whether or not such phenotypes are apparent.
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How many Half-lives does it take for C14 to decay until 6. 25% remains?
It takes 4 half-lives for C14 to decay until 6.25% remains.
How to solve for the half lifeThe decay of C14 follows an exponential decay model, with a half-life of approximately 5,700 years. This means that after each half-life, half of the remaining C14 will have decayed.
To determine the number of half-lives it takes for C14 to decay until 6.25% remains, we can use the following formula:
N = N0 (1/2)^n
where N is the final amount of C14, N0 is the initial amount of C14 (which we can set to 100%), and n is the number of half-lives.
If we set N to 6.25%, or 0.0625, we get:
0.0625 = 1 (1/2)^n
Simplifying this equation, we get:
(1/2)^n = 0.0625
Taking the logarithm of both sides, we get:
n log(1/2) = log(0.0625)
n = log(0.0625) / log(1/2)
n = 4
Therefore, it takes 4 half-lives for C14 to decay until 6.25% remains.
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Honor biología transport problem please helps
Cell transport describes the passage of a material across a cell membrane. The material has the ability to enter or exit cells. Different substances travel through the cell membrane or plasma membrane.
What is cell transport called?Material moving across cell walls is referred to as cell transport. Both inactive and active cell movement are involved. Active transport needs energy to operate, whereas passive transport doesn't. Osmosis, assisted diffusion, and diffusion take place during passive movement.
In a cell, there are four different kinds of transfer systems. These are main active transport, secondary active transport, facilitated diffusion, and straightforward diffusion.
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Corn used to be basically no bigger than grass seed but what did humans do over 1,000 years to make it grow
Answer:
Corn is a crop that originated from a wild grass called teosinte, which was originally grown in central Mexico about 9000 years ago. The first corns were small and had only a few kernels, and they were mostly used for their stalks and leaves rather than their grains. Over thousands of years of selective breeding, humans transformed teosinte into the modern-day corn plant.
Early farmers selected and saved the largest and most productive teosinte plants, which had more kernels and larger ears. Over time, this led to the development of larger and more productive corn plants. Farmers continued to select for traits like size, sweetness, and yield, and eventually, different varieties of corn with unique characteristics were developed.
In addition to selective breeding, Native American farmers also practiced companion planting, which involved planting beans, squash, and other crops alongside corn. These plants helped provide nitrogen to the soil and deter pests, which helped improve the quality and yield of the corn.
Over the past 1,000 years, humans have continued to selectively breed and improve corn, resulting in the development of hybrid corn varieties that are even more productive and disease-resistant than their ancestors. Today, corn is one of the most important crops in the world, with a wide range of uses in food, animal feed, fuel, and other industries.
which statement characterizes mutiualism?
Answer:
A.
Explanation:
Mutualism is defined as a symbiotic relationship in which both parties benefit from the association.
I am sorry if this is wrong, I'm not good with science or biology.
16. Predict What would happen if a tendon in
your finger were cut?
Answer:
you will be unable to straighten one or more finger of your flexor tendon is damaged
which vitamin help us to the formation of sperm
Answer: Vitamin B-12
Explanation:
Vitamin B-12 B12 is essential to the sperm production process.
A marine biologist is studying Prochlorococcus, a cyanobacteria that conducts photosynthesis to manufacture its own food. In what ocean zone is the biologist likely to find most of these organisms?
A.
sunlight
B.
twilight
C.
midnight
D.
deep
Answer:
The answer is A.
Explanation:
A marine biologist is likely to find most Prochlorococcus organisms in the sunlight zone of the ocean, which is also called the euphotic zone. This zone is characterized by abundant sunlight, which is necessary for photosynthesis to occur.
which diagram correctly models the movement of heat, energy, and matter in an ecosystem? which diagram correctly models the movement of heat, energy, and matter in an ecosystem?
The diagram that correctly models the movement of heat, energy, and matter in an ecosystem is the food chain diagram.
An ecosystem is defined as a group of living and nonliving things that interact with one another. It includes living organisms (plants, animals, and microbes), nonliving organisms (water, soil, and air), and energy. All of these elements collaborate to build a structure that enables life on Earth to exist.
Energy is defined as the ability to do work, and in an ecosystem, energy is crucial. The sun is the primary source of energy, and it is captured by producers (plants). This energy flows through the ecosystem from producers to consumers (herbivores) and then to secondary consumers (carnivores).
In the food chain, energy moves from one organism to another, enabling living things to grow, reproduce, and survive. In ecosystems, the matter is continuously cycled. It is reused and recycled throughout the ecosystem.
The correct diagram that models the movement of heat, energy, and matter in an ecosystem is the food chain diagram. It shows the movement of energy from one organism to another through the food chain. In general, the food chain diagram illustrates how energy, matter, and heat move through the ecosystem.
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State five adaptive features of animals in a fresh water habitat and their functions.
which of these gametes contain one or more recombinant chromosomes? gamete arrangement after meiosis with a crossing over. a cell contains one large blue chromosome, one large red chromosome, one small blue chromosome, and one small red chromosome. this cell can form 8 types of gametes, 5 of them are labeled a through e. gamete a contains 1 long blue and 1 short blue chromosomes. gamete b contains 1 long blue and 1 short blue chromosomes; both have red ends. gamete c contains 1 long red and 1 short red chromosomes; both have blue ends. gamete d contains 1 long red and 1 short red chromosomes. gamete e contains 1 long red and 1 short blue chromosomes. which of these gametes contain one or more recombinant chromosomes? gamete arrangement after meiosis with a crossing over. a cell contains one large blue chromosome, one large red chromosome, one small blue chromosome, and one small red chromosome. this cell can form 8 types of gametes, 5 of them are labeled a through e. gamete a contains 1 long blue and 1 short blue chromosomes. gamete b contains 1 long blue and 1 short blue chromosomes; both have red ends. gamete c contains 1 long red and 1 short red chromosomes; both have blue ends. gamete d contains 1 long red and 1 short red chromosomes. gamete e contains 1 long red and 1 short blue chromosomes. c, d, e, f, and g b, c, f, and g b, c, d, and g a, b, and c b, c, and g
The gametes that contain one or more recombinant chromosomes are gamete B and gamete C and G. This is because both of these gametes have chromosomes with red ends and blue ends, indicating that crossing over has occurred and the chromosomes have exchanged genetic material.
A gamete is an animal or plant reproductive cell. Animals' male and female gametes are referred to as sperm and ova, respectively. Each ova and sperm cell carries one copy of each chromosome, making them haploid cells. A sperm and an ovum combine during fertilizations to create a fresh diploid creature.
Gamete A, gamete D, and gamete E do not contain recombinant chromosomes because they only have one color on their chromosomes (either all blue or all red), indicating that no crossing over has occurred. Therefore, the correct answer is B, C, and G.
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The function of a protein is related to its shape (tertiary and
quaternary structure). View the images below showing the
structures of different proteins. Match each figure to the
appropriate description in the list below.
A protein's quaternary structure is the connection of multiple protein chains or subunits into a densely packed configuration. Each component has a distinct primary, secondary, and tertiary structure. Hydrogen bonds and van der Waals forces between nonpolar side chains hold the subunits together.
What is quaternary structure of protein?Protein complexes with various quaternary structures play critical roles in protein interaction networks in the biological environment. The interaction of two or more folded polypeptides results in quaternary structure. Before becoming active, many proteins require the assembly of multiple polypeptide subunits. If the final protein is composed of two subunits, it is referred to as a dimer.
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if one of the 18cm f1 pigs is mated with one of the 6cm f2 pigs, what phenotypic ratio would be predicted if many offspring resulted? diagram the cross.
If one of the 18-cm F1 pigs is mated with one of the 6-cm F2 pigs, the phenotypic ratio of the offspring will be 1:2:1.
| H h
--|-----
H | HH Hh
h | Hh hh
Assuming that "f1" and "f2" refer to different breeds or genetic backgrounds of pigs, and that the "18cm" and "6cm" measurements refer to some trait of interest (e.g. height, weight, etc.), the predicted phenotypic ratio of the offspring resulting from mating an 18cm f1 pig with a 6cm f2 pig would depend on the mode of inheritance of the trait in question.
Without more information about the trait, it is difficult to predict the phenotypic ratio with certainty. However, as an example, let's assume that the trait is height and that it is controlled by a single gene with incomplete dominance, where the f1 pig is heterozygous for the trait (i.e. Hh) and the f2 pig is homozygous recessive (i.e. hh).
The offspring would have genotypes of HH (18cm), Hh (somewhere between 6cm and 18cm), and hh (6cm) in a 1:2:1 ratio. The corresponding phenotypic ratio would be 1:2:1, with one offspring being tall (18cm), two offspring being intermediate in height (between 6cm and 18cm), and one offspring being short (6cm).
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Why is it important for a muscle to be attached to a fixed origin at one end and a moving insertion at the other? Discuss how this promotes movement, using deltoid as an example.
The attachment of a muscle to a fixed origin and a movable insertion is essential for generating efficient and controlled movement in the body.
explain about the importance of the muscle in movement in the body ?
Muscles are responsible for generating movement in the body by contracting and pulling on the bones to which they are attached. The attachment of a muscle to a fixed origin at one end and a moving insertion at the other end is crucial for this function, as it allows for efficient and controlled movement.
When a muscle contracts, it pulls on the bone at its insertion point, causing it to move towards the bone at its origin. Since the origin is fixed, the muscle fibers can generate tension and force without being pulled out of position. This fixed origin also provides a stable base from which the muscle can generate force and leverage to move the bone at the insertion point.
The deltoid muscle is a good example of how this works. The deltoid is a large, triangular muscle that covers the shoulder joint and is responsible for lifting the arm away from the body. Its origin is on the scapula (shoulder blade) and the clavicle (collarbone), while its insertion is on the humerus (upper arm bone). When the deltoid contracts, it pulls on the humerus, causing the arm to lift away from the body.
The fixed origin of the deltoid muscle allows it to generate force and tension, while the movable insertion point allows for efficient movement of the arm. The deltoid also works in conjunction with other muscles in the shoulder and upper back to provide stability and control during arm movements.
This arrangement allows muscles to generate force and tension without being pulled out of position, and provides a stable base from which the muscle can generate leverage to move the bone at the insertion point.
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a mutation that stops the production of acid (h ) in the stomach such that no acid is ever produced would most likely lead to: (hint: draw out the diagram): group of answer choices an ulcer (injury in the stomach) a failure to produce pepsinogen a build-up of pepsin in the stomach a build-up of pepsinogen in the stomach inadequate mucus production from the lining of the stomach
If there is a mutation that halts the production of acid (H+) in the stomach so that no acid is ever produced, it would most likely lead to Failure to produce pepsinogen. The correct answer is A
Pepsinogen is released in the stomach by cells called Chief cells. This inactive form of pepsinogen converts into pepsin when it comes in contact with the stomach acid in the stomach lumen. However, if there is no acid produced, then pepsinogen would not be converted to pepsin that can digest proteins.
Therefore, this would lead to the failure to produce pepsinogen.
Symptoms and Significance: A mutation that stops the production of H+ in the stomach could cause symptoms like abdominal pain and bloating. Pepsinogen will remain in its inactive form, and the acid barrier that normally protects the stomach against bacteria, viruses, and other harmful substances will be disrupted as well.
This condition is known as hypochlorhydria or achlorhydria and can result in bacterial overgrowth in the stomach, leading to infections like Helicobacter pylori.
Inadequate mucus production from the lining of the stomach could lead to ulcers, a build-up of pepsinogen in the stomach, and a build-up of pepsin in the stomach, but none of these conditions are expected to occur if there is a mutation that stops the production of acid (H+) in the stomach, since acid is required for these conditions to develop.
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