Bradycardia, irregular breathing, and a widening pulse pressure make up the Cushing's triad (increasing systolic pressure).
The term "Cushing's triad" describes a group of symptoms that point to elevated intracranial pressure (ICP), or elevated pressure in the brain. The three components of Cushing's triad are bradycardia (low heart rate), irregular breathing, and widened pulse pressure. Instead of being weak, the pulse is full and brisk. Systolic blood pressure rises rather than falls.
The Cushing triad of widened pulse pressure (increasing systolic, decreasing diastolic), bradycardia, and irregular respirations is a physiological nervous system reaction to acute elevations of intracranial pressure (ICP). An intracranial, soft rubber bag was filled with mercury to increase intracranial pressure. Cushing simultaneously measured the intracranial pressure, blood pressure, pulse rate, and respiratory rate. Cushing's triad is the common name for this three-part effect.
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The above question is incomplete. Check below the complete question -
A nurse is caring for a patient with a closed head injury and increasing intracranial pressure. Which of the following manifestations does the nurse report to the health care provider that represent Cushing's triad? Select all that apply.
1 Bradycardia
2 Weak pulse
3 Irregular respirations
4 Increasing systolic blood pressure
5 Decreasing systolic blood pressure
an adolescent is seen in the emergency department following an athletic injury, and it is suspected that the child sprained an ankle. x-rays are taken, and a fracture has been ruled out. the nurse reinforces instructions to the adolescent regarding home care for treatment of the sprain and provides the adolescent with which information?
After taking X-rays at the emergency room, a fracture has already been ruled out. The nurse tells the adolescent how to care for their sprain at home and gives guidelines.
What of the following evaluation methods should be used to identify whether an increase is intracranial pressure is present?
The response is C. In order to measure ICP, a catheter is inserted near the lateral ventricle and is known as a ventriculostomy. When pressure readings rise and ICP is measured, it will aid in draining CSF. ICP values over 20 mmHg must be watched monitored by the nurse, who must then inform the doctor.
Suction equipment is required after tonsillectomy, but due to the danger of damage to the surgical site, suctioning is not done until there is a airway obstruction. Following any kind of surgery, it's crucial for nurses to keep an eye out for bleeding.
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which nursing action is specific to the plan of care for a client with trigeminal neuralgia?
Be on the lookout to prevent starving or dehydration as part of the treatment plan for a patient with trigeminal neuralgia.
What is the prevention of trigeminal neuralgia?
Without being aware of the precise pathology or aetiology, prevention is challenging.Trigeminal neuralgia can be brought on by a number of reasons, including: As a result, modifying your trigger(s) to some extent could lessen trigeminal neuralgia attacks after diagnosis.Medications. In order to treat trigeminal neuralgia, your doctor will typically prescribe drugs that diminish or block the pain signals that are delivered from your body to your brain. Anticonvulsants. Trigeminal neuralgia is typically treated with carbamazepine, which is available under the brand names Tegretol, Carbatrol, and other names. 300 mg bid is the suggested starting dose.The US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has not yet approved this medication for the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia. The FDA has not yet approved this medication for trigeminal neuralgia (TN).To learn more about starving or dehydration refer to:
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the nurse is interviewing a client with a history of physical aggression. which should the nurse avoid?
While interviewing a client with history of physical aggression, the nurse should avoid: (B) Explaining the consequences the client will face if control is lost.
Physical aggression is the resultant of anger where a person tends to harm the other person physically that may include beating, biting, hitting, kicking, etc. The physical aggression is usually due to fear, anxiety or stress.
Anger is the emotional state of an individual that emerges due to dislike or annoyance. It is the expression of negative feelings towards a person or situation. Anger is further divided into various forms like: passive, open and assertive.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
The nurse is interviewing a client with a history of physical aggression. Which should the nurse avoid?
A) Anticipating that a loss of control is possible and planning accordingly
B) Explaining the consequences the client will face if control is lost
C) Interviewing the client with another staff member present
D) Responding to verbal threats by terminating the interview and obtaining assistance
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a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (aids) has become infected with histoplasmosis. the nurse monitors the client for which manifestation of histoplasmosis?
Histoplasmosis is caused by Histoplasma capsulatum and usually starts as a respiratory infection in the client with AIDS and then becomes a disseminated .
What does histoplasmosis do to the body?Histoplasmosis is a fungal infection that can affect anyone. It usually affects the lungs and causes pneumonia but also can affect other parts of the body. Learning about histoplasmosis can help you stay healthy and recognize symptoms early if you do get the infection.
Can histoplasmosis be cured?For some people, the symptoms of histoplasmosis will go away without treatment. However, prescription antifungal medication is needed to treat severe histoplasmosis in the lungs, chronic histoplasmosis, and infections that have spread from the lungs to other parts of the body (disseminated histoplasmosis).
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the registered nurse is educating a student nurse about critical thinking when caring for clients. which action made by the student nurse indicates the use of critical thinking?
A student nurse is being taught by a registered nurse how to use critical thinking when treating patients. By asking the client to confirm his or her name and date of birth before administering medicine, the nursing student demonstrated the application of critical thinking.
A decision to take action is reached through the mental process of actively and carefully perceiving, analyzing, synthesizing, and evaluating the information that has been gathered through observation, experience, and conversation. Critical-thinking and its importance in routine clinical nursing practices and treatments that are frequently discussed in nursing education. Clinical nursing teachers are aware that making judgements for clinical practice can be challenging for students. Nursing students should use the following critical thinking skills throughout their studies: critical analysis, introduction and conclusion justification, valid conclusion, differentiation of facts and opinions, assessment of the reliability of information sources, clarification of concepts, and recognition of conditions.
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The complete question is:
The registered nurse is educating a student nurse about critical thinking when caring for clients. Which action made by the student nurse indicates the use of critical thinking?
Analyzing a client's temperature changes and assessing for signs of infection.Filling out food selections on the menu with the client to determine food preferences.Ensuring the bed is in a low and locked position and the call light is in reach prior to leaving the client's room.Asking the client to verify his or her name and date of birth prior to medication administrationthe nurse is performing an assessment of a client's joint mobility. what documentation should the nurse provide related to this assessment if joint function is considered normal? select all that apply.
If joint function is thought to be normal, the nurse needs to give the paperwork for this assessment.
No masses, deformities, or muscle atrophy.Full range of motion with each joint.No swelling, heat, tenderness, pain, nodules, or crepitation.What makes joints more mobile?Exercises that train all of your major joints through the proper range of motion while stabilising the non-moving joints make up a healthy workout. Good examples include squats, lunges, presses, rows, and pulldowns.
Why is joint flexibility crucial?Joints need to be robust so that they can move well and in the proper position, and mobility is vital to enable higher efficiency of these joints because then their movements are not impaired. They must be movable enough to provide the muscles the freedom they require to function effectively.
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2. A researcher is interested in a relationship between aggression on schoolyards and video games. She asks parents to fill out a survey that reports the number of hours each week their child plays video games. She then observes each child on the playground at their school and counts the number of aggressive acts (eg. kicking, punching, hair pulling) during 30 minutes of recess time at school. (4 points) The correlational coefficient for this relationship was +0.6 a) Again, what are the variables of interest that produced this correlational coefficient number?
The variables of interest that produced this correlational coefficient number are the number of hours each week a child plays video games and the number of aggressive acts during 30 minutes of recess time at school.
What do you mean by the term aggressive?
Aggressive is a term used to describe a type of behavior that is hostile, violent, and domineering. It is often used to describe someone who is behaving in an intimidating or threatening manner. This type of behavior can be both physical and verbal, and is often seen as an attempt to gain power or control over another person.
This correlation coefficient indicates that there is a positive relationship between the number of hours a child plays video games each week and the number of aggressive acts they display during 30 minutes of recess. This suggests that the more hours a child plays video games each week, the more aggressive they are likely to be during recess.
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1. previously used screening recommendations including cvd risk assessment and risk classification tended to (over? or under?) refer individuals to seek out medical clearance before exercising.
Currently, treatment decisions are based on stratifying individual risk using methods like the Pooled Cohort Equations or the Framingham Risk Score to assess CVD risk in order to inform treatment for preventing CVD occurrences by changing risk variables.
Individuals to seek out medical clearance before exercising:
People with known high blood pressure, high cholesterol, joint issues (such as arthritis, degenerated discs), neurologic issues, poor circulation, lung disease, or any other significant chronic medical condition may benefit from medical consultation before beginning an exercise program, regardless of age or diabetes.You can construct an activity from scratch or modify one to fit your needs with the aid of several different specialists. They consist of: Physiatrists are board-certified medical professionals who focus on treating nerve, muscular, and bone problems that impair movement. They are also referred to as rehabilitation physicians.Before beginning a new fitness regimen, consult your doctor if you're unsure of your health status, have a number of health issues, or are pregnant.To learn more about CVD Risk refer to:
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sally was admitted with a mass on her left ovary. after workup it was determined that the mass was a benign neoplasm. the correct code for the principal diagnosis is .
The correct code for the principal diagnosis of a benign neoplasm of the left ovary would likely be ICDA-10 code D27.0 "Benign neoplasm of ovary."
A tumour is a mass or lump of abnormally growing cells, which is referred to as a neoplasm. Malignant or benign neoplasms are both possible (cancerous). Malignant neoplasms can enter nearby tissues and spread to other regions of the body via the bloodstream or lymphatic system, whereas benign neoplasms do not infect surrounding tissues and do not transfer to other areas of the body. Neoplasm and tumour are terms that are frequently used interchangeably. To create a suitable treatment strategy, it is crucial to appropriately diagnose neoplasms and distinguish between benign and malignant growths.
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A client with an acute kidney injury has peritoneal dialysis (PD) prescribed and asks why the procedure is necessary. Which response statement would the nurse use?
1 "PD prevents the development of serious heart problems by removing the damaged tissues."
2 "PD helps perform some of the work usually performed by your kidneys."
3 "PD stabilizes the kidney damage and may 'restart' your kidneys to perform better than before."
4 "PD speeds recovery because the kidneys are not responding to regulating hormones."
A client with an acute kidney injury has peritoneal dialysis (PD) prescribed and asks why the procedure is necessary, "PD helps perform some of the work usually performed by your kidneys" this response statement would the nurse use.
Correct option: 2
What is peritoneal dialysis?The kidneys typically eliminate toxins, pollutants, and fluids from the body. The mention of cardiac issues is a threatening reaction and may raise dread or anxiety. It is deceptive to inform the patient having PD may "restart" their kidneys and improve their functionality. Since the nephrons are damaged in acute kidney injury, PD may or may not hasten healing. PD helps regulate fluid and electrolytes.
Thus, correct option is: 2
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which is an appropriate response to a pregnant client who reports that she is always tired and feels sick to her stomach, especially in the morning?
"Let's discuss ways to resolve these common problems." is the appropriate response.
Pregnancy complications are health issues that arise as a result of the pregnancy. Obstetric labour difficulties are issues that occur mostly during childbirth, while puerperal abnormalities occur primarily after childbirth. Gestational diabetes is a pregnancy problem, and the growing trend of female obesity makes this a risk factor for its development.
Obesity is a risk factor for pre-eclampsia as well. There is no obvious distinction between pregnancy problems and pregnant symptoms and discomforts. However, the latter do not considerably interfere with everyday activities or constitute a serious hazard to the mother's or baby's health. Gestational diabetes occurs when a woman has excessive blood sugar levels during pregnancy without having previously been diagnosed with diabetes.
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which parent education would the nurse provide for a i-year-old infant who drinks from four to six full bottles of milk per day and has a hemoglobin level of 9 g/dl (90 mmol/l)?
Typically, they are able to nurse or use a conventional bottle-feeding approach. Perhaps the only adjustment required is to place the lips so the infant can latch. if you are nursing your infant.
After having cleft lip surgery, how do you eat?Following cleft lip surgery, it's typical to restrict breastfeeding and bottle feeding. To prevent putting strain on the surgical incision, other feeding techniques including using a spoon, cup, or syringe are advised.
What tools are suitable for feeding a baby whose cleft palate has been repaired by Cleftlip?Use the customized cleft palate bottle that has been recommended by your baby's health care provider. To stop the formula from running back into the baby's nose area, sit the child up straight. Keep tilting the bottle.
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a team of nurses are evaluating some current practices on the unit to see if changes are warranted. which guideline should the nurses prioritize as they implement ebp?
The standard guidelines that a nursing team can implement (as they implement EBP) to ensure that they provide better health services to their clients are identifying knowledge gaps, applying evidence rules that validate nursing qualifications, and formulating relevant questions.
EBP (Evidence-Based Practice) requires that decisions about health care be based on the best available, current, valid, and relevant evidence. Within the context of available resources, these decisions should be made by those receiving care, informed by the tacit and explicit knowledge of those providing care. Steps in EBP include : Identification of problem, collection of most relevant evidence, critical appraisal of evidence, combination of study findings, evaluation of change in practice. The standard guidelines that a nursing team can implement (in EBP) to ensure that they provide better health services to their clients are identifying knowledge gaps, applying evidence rules that validate nursing qualifications, and formulating relevant questions. EBP assists people in continuing to improve patient outcomes while weighing the preferences and experiences of each patient, which is one of the main tenets of nursing. Improved patient care decisions that save nurses time.
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a client with diabetes has impaired sensation in the lower extremities. what education would be necessary to reduce the client's risk of injury?
For the body to function normally, it is crucial to maintain a healthy blood glucose level. The blood glucose level is maintained by the hormones insulin and glucagon.
Diabetes can be brought on by a person's body secreting the hormone insulin in an improper manner. Polydypsia and even feeling in the body can be brought on by diabetes. Due to her diabetes, the person can feel her lower extremities. Her danger of harm can be decreased by checking the water's temperature before stepping. The nursing staff's top goal is to ensure her safety, so they put two side rails and tell her not to get out of bed by herself the first time.
Due to the effects of the epidural anesthetic, the postpartum client has limited sensation in her lower limbs. Injury risk is the top nursing worry for the client.
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which statements by the mother of a toddler would lead the nurse to suspect that the child has iron-deficiency anemia? select all that apply.
The following remarks by a toddler's mother might prompt a nurse to think that the kid has iron deficiency anemia:
A. He drinks over 3 cups of milk per day
B. I cant keep enough apple juice in the house; he must drink over 10 ounces per day
Toddlers should have 2 to 3 cups of milk per day, as well as 8 ounces of juice each day. If they have more, they are most likely not consuming enough other foods, especially iron-rich meals that include the necessary elements. Iron deficiency anemia is a frequent kind of anemia, defined as a shortage of functional red blood cells in the blood. Red blood cells carry oxygen to the body's tissues.
As the name implies, iron deficiency anemia is triggered by a shortage of iron. If you don't get enough iron, your body can't generate sufficient amounts of a component within red blood cells that permits them to carry oxygen. As just a result, iron deficiency can cause fatigue and shortness of breath.
The complete Question is:
Which statements by the mother of a toddler would lead the nurse to suspect that the child has iron-deficiency anemia? Select all that apply.
A. “He drinks over 3 cups of milk per day.”
B. “I can’t keep enough apple juice in the house; he must drink over 10 ounces per day.”
C. “He refuses to eat more than 2 different kinds of vegetables.”
D. “He doesn’t like meat. but he will eat small amounts of it.”
E. “He sleeps 12 hours every night and take a 2-hour nap.”
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which questions would the nurse ask when assessing a client diagnosed with acromegaly? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Do you snore?
Have you noticed that your shoe size has increased?
Have you ever experienced unusual thirst or excessive urination? These are the questions nurses ask acromegaly patients/clients.
Patients with acromegaly experience hypersecretion of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary gland. When growth hormone is overproduced, bones and soft tissues become hypertrophied and thickened. Sleep apnea can occur due to the narrowing of the airway caused by the enlargement of the soft tissue of the upper airway. Increased snoring indicates sleep apnea. The bones and tissues of the face, feet, and hands are particularly susceptible to excess growth hormone. Patients may notice that their rings no longer fit and their shoe size has increased. Because growth hormone antagonizes insulin, people with acromegaly often have hyperglycemia.
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which action would the nurse be responsible for during a lumbar puncture procedure for an 18-month-old toddler?
Answer:
Explanation:
During a lumbar puncture procedure (also known as a spinal tap), the nurse would be responsible for several actions to ensure the safety and comfort of the 18-month-old toddler, including:
Preparing the equipment and supplies needed for the procedure, such as sterile needles, tubing, and local anesthetic.
Assessing the toddler's vital signs, such as blood pressure, heart rate, and oxygen saturation, to ensure they are stable before and after the procedure.
Positioning the toddler correctly on the examination table to access the lumbar area, usually on their side with their knees flexed up towards the abdomen.
Administering local anesthetic to the area where the needle will be inserted to minimize pain and discomfort for the toddler.
Assisting the healthcare provider during the procedure by holding the toddler still and providing emotional support.
Monitoring the toddler for any signs of adverse reactions or complications during and after the procedure.
Documenting the procedure, including the date, time, and any observations made during the procedure.
Educating the parents and caregivers on how to care for the toddler after the procedure and what to expect.
It's important to mention that the nurse must be knowledgeable about the procedure, the indications, and the potential complications that may arise during the procedure.
why were indigenous americans so vulnerable to diseases?
Indigenous Americans were so vulnerable to diseases that emerged in the old world because they didn't develop resistance after the encounter between these civilizations.
What is the evolution of disease resistance in humans?The evolution of disease resistance in humans has occurred through both natural selection and the development of acquired immunity. Natural selection has resulted in genetic mutations that confer protection from certain diseases, while acquired immunity has been achieved through exposure to certain pathogens, vaccination, and the development of antibodies.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the evolution of disease resistance in humans is based on the generation of antibodies.
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history of infertility, ectopic pregnancy, and poor reproductive history are all reasons that a pregnancy is considered ____ risk. a. no b. low c. high d. moderate
History of infertility, ectopic pregnancy, and poor reproductive history are all reasons that a pregnancy is considered _high___ risk.
If there are any known variables that could raise the possibility of difficulties or unfavorable results for the mother or baby, the pregnancy is deemed high risk. Poor reproductive history, ectopic pregnancy, and a history of infertility are a few examples of conditions that can raise the chance of pregnancy.
The chance of difficulties like miscarriage, preterm labor, or improper fetal development may also be increased by these diseases. Therefore, to guarantee the best outcome, pregnant women with these risk factors may need intensive supervision and specialized treatment.
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arrange the steps involved in the evidence-based practice process in the correct order. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. evaluate the practice decision or change. ask a clinical question.
Before making a decision or modifying your practice, pose a clinical issue, get the best and most relevant data, critically evaluate it, and then take into account your clinical competence, your clientele's preferences, and their values.
Assess the decision or alteration to the existing practice; (6) Discuss the outcomes of evidence-based practice.
To help inform healthcare decisions, recent research findings should be carefully chosen, evaluated, and used. The issue a patient is having is used to create a precise clinical query, which is then used to search the literature for pertinent clinical papers, evaluate (critically appraise) the evidence for its reliability, and finally apply beneficial knowledge to clinical practice.
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a client diagnosed with a hemorrhagic stroke is being transferred to the medical unit from the intensive care unit. which nursing intervention should the nurse initially implement?
a. Administer PRN stool softeners daily. c. Implement seizure precautions. d. Keep client NPO until swallow screen is performed. e. Perform frequent neurological assessments.
In addition to monitoring blood glucose and doing a bedside dysphagia screen or assessment, the initial nursing assessment of the stroke patient following admission to the hospital should include assessing the patient's vital signs, including oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and temperature. Even though there is a slight chance of developing an allergic reaction, intravenous phytonadione is advised for life-threatening bleeding, such as intracerebral haemorrhage complicating warfarin therapy. Intravenous thrombolytic therapy, which is delivered as a one-minute intravenous bolus of alteplase followed by a 60-minute infusion, is the first line of treatment for those who have had an ischemic stroke.
The complete question is:
A hospitalized client develops acute hemorrhagic stroke and is transferred to the intensive care unit. Which nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care? Select all that apply.
a. Administer PRN stool softeners daily
b. Administer scheduled enoxaparin injection
c. Implement seizure precautions
d. Keep client NPO until swallow screen is performed
e. Perform frequent neurological assessments.
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if a paramedic receives an order from a physician that he or she feels is detrimental to the patient's best interests, the paramedic should:
If a paramedic gets an order from a physician that he or she believes is detrimental to the patient's best interests, the paramedic should immediately raise his or her concerns with the physician.
Medical services that aren't generally given by doctors are supplied by paramedics. Nurses, paramedics, physical therapists, as well as other health care professions are included. Paramedics as health professionals that support doctors in the entire diagnosis & care of patients, as well as the administration of health facilities. Their major responsibility is to give patients with pre-hospital medical treatment.
First responders are paramedics. Paramedics are members of a emergency medical team that respond first on the scene to offer care and make sure patients remain in a stable state when someone is sick, wounded, or requires transfer to a hospital or other medical institution. When in an emergency, paramedics must assess the situation, offer any necessary medical treatment, and then, if necessary, continue to provide care inside an ambulance or even other emergency vehicle to assist their patients in reaching the appropriate medical specialists who can help them further.
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what should the clinic nurse include in the instructions for a woman scheduling a pelvic examination? select all that apply
The clinic nurse should include in the instructions for a woman scheduling a pelvic examination is that you use a do.uc.he, avoid intercourse for 48 hours before the examination, and apply vaginal medication.
A do.uc.he is a tool, or the stream of water itself, that is used to inject water into the body for therapeutic or hygienic purposes. Do.uc.he typically refers to cleaning the vagina, commonly known as vaginal irrigation, although it can also apply to washing any body cavity.
In a pelvic examination, the doctor or nurse will press on the lower abdomen with one hand while inserting one or two of their gloves, lubricated fingers into the vagina. This is done to examine the uterus and ovaries' size, shape, and location.
The question is incomplete, find the complete question here
what should the clinic nurse include in the instructions for a woman scheduling a pelvic examination? select all that apply
use a do.uc.he
avoid intercourse for 48 hours before the examination
Wash vagina with soap and water
apply vaginal medication.
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to ensure a safe environment for a child admitted to the hospital for a craniotomy to remove a brain tumor, the nurse would include which in the plan of care?
Initiating the seizure precautions is the plan to care for a child who is having a brain tumor.
A brain tumor is an abnormal mass or growth of cells in the brain. There are different types of the brain tumors. Some brain tumors are noncancerous (benign) and some brain tumors are cancerous. Surgery in which a small hole is made in the skull or a piece of bone is removed from the skull to expose part of the brain. A craniotomy can be done to remove the brain tumor or a sample of brain tissue. After craniotomy, the bone flap heals over time and partially heals back into the rest of the skull within 2-3 months. Full recovery may take several months and depends on the underlying disease being treated
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a patient appears to have difficulty with obtaining good laryngeal elation when he attempts to swallow his saliva. what muscle or muscles should be considered as possible contributors to the failure of this elation
a patient appears to have difficulty with obtaining good laryngeal elation when he attempts to swallow his saliva. These muscles include the omohyoid, sternohyoid, and sternothyroid muscles (ansa cervicalis), and the thyrohyoid muscle (CN XII).
What is laryngeal?A persistent vocal disease called laryngeal dystonia (LD) is characterised by spasms of the voice box's muscles (larynx). The voice is managed by these muscles. The spasms may cause a sore throat, frequent hoarseness, changes in voice quality, and/or speaking difficulties. The transverse and oblique regions in-between the arytenoid cartilages are covered by the arytenoid muscles. The only laryngeal intrinsic muscle that is damaged is the transverse arytenoid muscle. The vocal folds are adducted by these muscles. The larynx may move thanks to the pairing of extrinsic larynx muscles.
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the nurse is caring for a patient who sustained a major burn. what serious gastrointestinal disturbance should the nurse monitor for that frequently occurs with a major burn?
The patient being cared for by the nurse has suffered severe burns. Paralytic ileus is a dangerous gastrointestinal disorder that nurses should keep an eye out for because it commonly coexists with a large burn.
A frequent side effect of severe burns is gastrointestinal problems. Injury to GI function, particularly to GI barrier function, is a significant initiator as well as a stimulant for the incidence of sepsis, multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS), and systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) after severe burns. A number of innovative therapies, such as fluid resuscitation, early escharotomy, continuous renal replacement therapy, and administration of glutamine and growth factor, have been adopted in the treatment of severe burns as a result of advances in our understanding of GI function and changes in clinical treatment patterns over the past 30 years. The novel treatments are effective in preventing and treating GI dysfunction after severe burns.
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the nurse is performing an assessment of the neck and identifies tracheal deviation. what is the most appropriate response of the nurse?
The most appropriate response of the nurse is to notify the health care provider if while performing an assessment of the neck she identifies tracheal deviation.
Tracheal deviation occurs as abnormal pressure in the chest cavity or neck pushes the trachea to one side of the neck. The trachea, commonly referred to as the windpipe, is a cartilage tube that permits air to enter and exit the lungs while you breathe.
Tracheal deviation is a symptom rather than a condition, hence the goal of treatment is to address the root of the finding. The health care provider performs thoracentesis or chest tube insertion in the event of a pneumothorax to release pressure from the damaged pleural cavity.
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it is november and you are working in a small, rural, emergency department serving a community who is currently going through a flu epidemic. your next patient is a 4-year-old boy who was brought in by his mother for a sore throat and fever that started two nights ago. she says he has a mild cough, and is complaining of headaches as well. since last night, he has had a decreased appetite and has not been his normal, active self. she also wants you to know that he is allergic to eggs and latex, and uses an inhaler once a month for asthma like symptoms. on physical exam you note an erythematous throat, clear rhinorrhea, and rhonchi on auscultation. a rapid strep test was performed in the office and is negative. his last well child check was 14 months ago, and his mother says she knows he is due for another but her schedule has been too busy. What is the next best step in management?
A. Zanamavir
B. Aspirin
C. Ibuprofen
D. Amantadine
E. Albuterol
In areas where there is a known flu outbreak, Tamiflu can be recommended to patients who exhibit flu-like symptoms without further testing.
What does Tamiflu actually do?
An antiviral medication is tamiflu (oseltamivir phosphate). It functions by fighting the influenza virus to prevent it from proliferating in your system and so by lessening flu symptoms. If you take tamiflu before being sick, it may occasionally prevent you from getting swine flu.
What risks are associated with taking Tamiflu?
Nausea and vomiting are frequent side effects of the Tamiflu drug. Infants taking this medicine may also frequently have diarrhoea. Children's mental health issues and severe skin problems are examples of serious adverse effects. Despite being uncommon, these side effects could call for immediate medical attention.
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what the statement made by a patient with ulcerative colitis indicate understanding after a teaching session regarding sulfasalazine
The correct answer is option (B). "I will need to avoid contact with people who are sick."
They are aware that the drug sulfasalazine is used to treat ulcerative colitis.
They are aware of the recommended amount and frequency of the drug. They are aware of any potential adverse effects, such as nausea, headaches, and vomiting, and know what to do if they occur.
Sulfasalazine, a drug used to treat ulcerative colitis, has several unfavorable effects that can include:
gastrointestinal symptoms include lack of appetite, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and stomach pain.
Headaches
Dizziness
Fatigue
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The above question is incomplete. The complete question is given below-
Which patient statement indicates that the nurse's teaching about sulfasalazine (Azulfidine) for ulcerative colitis has been effective?
A. "The medication will be tapered if I need surgery."
B. "I will need to avoid contact with people who are sick."
C. "The medication prevents the infections that cause diarrhea."
D. "I will need to use a sunscreen when I am outdoors
the patient in this scenario has a known allergy to penicillin. which medication will be avoided when treating an infection?
The patient has a known allergy to penicillin in scenario and amoxicillin is the medication that will be avoided when treating an infection.
A multitude of bacterial infections are treated with amoxicillin, an antibiotic. These include, among others, urinary tract infections, strep throat, pneumonia, middle ear infections, and strep throat. It is ingested or, less frequently, administered intravenously. Nausea and redness are frequent side effects.
Penicillins are employed to cure bacterial infections. They function by either eradicating the germs or stopping their development. Among the most often recommended antibiotic classes is the penicillin family, which includes several different drugs like amoxicillin, dicloxacillin, ampicillin, ticarcillin, and piperacillin.
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