Right triangles 1, 2, and 3 are given with all their angle measures and approximate side lengths. Use one of the triangles to approximate the ratio (KL)/(JL).

- 0.64
- 0.77
- 0.83
- 1.2

Answer:

23 because its supposed to be 8 numbers less

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve percent problems, you can use the equation, Percent · Base = Amount, and solve for the unknown numbers. Or, you can set up the proportion, Percent = , where the percent is a ratio of a number to 100.

Answer:

Base = Amount, and solve for the unknown numbers.Step-by-step explanation:

Or, you can set up the proportion, Percent = , where the percent is a ratio of a number to 100. You can then use cross multiplication to solve the proportion.

Answer:

$0.22

Step-by-step explanation:

128 oz in a gallon

2 gallons is 256oz

28.16*2=56.32

56.32/256=0.22

The transactions that would leave the initial balance the same are a deposit of $278 followed by a withdrawal of $278.

The transactions that would leave the initial balance the same are transactions that net to zero. Withdrawals reduce the balance in the account. Deposits increase the value of the balance in the account.

Option A: Net balance

$275 - $232 + 132 = $175

Option B: Net balance

$275 + $278 - $278 = $275

Option C: Net balance

$275 - $115 + $312 = $472

Option D: Net balance

$275 + $205 - $317 = $163

To learn more about subtraction, please check: https://brainly.com/question/854115

The sample sizes are quite large, so the central limit theorem applies. (It typically does as soon as the sample size exceeds 30 or so.) This means that the sample mean will be approximately normally distributed with the same mean 22 but standard deviation 3.1/√40 ≈ 0.4902.

Now, if the question is asking about the probability of the sample mean being an exact number, that probability would be zero.

But if you meant to ask something else, like "what is the probability that the sample mean is less than 21?" then we would have a non-zero probability. In this particular case, if Y is a random variable for the sample mean, then

Pr[Y < 21] = Pr[(Y - 22)/(3.1/√40) < (21 - 22)/(3.1/√40)]

… ≈ Pr[Z < -2.0402]

… ≈ 0.0207

[tex] \large \bigstar \frak{ } \large\underline{\sf{Solution-}}[/tex]

Consider, LHS

[tex]\begin{gathered}\rm \: \dfrac { \tan \theta + \sec \theta - 1 } { \tan \theta - \sec \theta + 1 } \\ \end{gathered}[/tex]

We know,

[tex]\begin{gathered}\boxed{\sf{  \:\rm \: {sec}^{2}x - {tan}^{2}x = 1 \: \: }} \\ \end{gathered} 

\\ \\ \text{So, using this identity, we get}

\\ \\ \begin{gathered}\rm \: = \:\dfrac { \tan \theta + \sec \theta - ( {sec}^{2}\theta - {tan}^{2}\theta )} { \tan \theta - \sec \theta + 1 } \\ \end{gathered}[/tex]

We know,

[tex]\begin{gathered}\boxed{\sf{  \:\rm \: {x}^{2} - {y}^{2} = (x + y)(x - y) \: \: }} \\ \end{gathered}  \\ [/tex]

So, using this identity, we get

[tex]\begin{gathered}\rm \: = \:\dfrac { \tan \theta + \sec \theta - (sec\theta + tan\theta )(sec\theta - tan\theta )} { \tan \theta - \sec \theta + 1 } \\ \end{gathered}[/tex]

can be rewritten as

[tex]\begin{gathered}\rm\:=\:\dfrac {(\sec \theta + tan\theta ) - (sec\theta + tan\theta )(sec\theta -tan\theta )} { \tan \theta - \sec \theta + 1 } \\ \end{gathered} \\ \\ \\\begin{gathered}\rm \: = \:\dfrac {(\sec \theta + tan\theta ) \: \cancel{(1 - sec\theta + tan\theta )}} { \cancel{ \tan \theta - \sec \theta + 1} } \\ \end{gathered} \\ \\ \\\begin{gathered}\rm \: = \:sec\theta + tan\theta \\\end{gathered} \\ \\ \\\begin{gathered}\rm \: = \:\dfrac{1}{cos\theta } + \dfrac{sin\theta }{cos\theta } \\ \end{gathered} \\ \\ \\\begin{gathered}\rm \: = \:\dfrac{1 + sin\theta }{cos\theta } \\ \end{gathered}[/tex]

[tex]\begin{gathered} \\ \rm\implies \:\boxed{\sf{  \:\rm \: \dfrac { \tan \theta + \sec \theta - 1 } { \tan \theta - \sec \theta + 1 } = \:\dfrac{1 + sin\theta }{cos\theta } \: \: }} \\ \\ \end{gathered}[/tex]

[tex]\rule{190pt}{2pt}[/tex]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

You have four balls

A draw of blue, green or yellow (3 balls) means success for NOT drawing a red ball

You have a 3 in 4 chance of not drawing a red ball on the first  draw.

With replacement, the 3 in 4 chance occurs on every draw

the odds multiply together for each draw.

Chance of not drawing a red ball in 40 tries is (3/4)⁴⁰

or about 1 in 10⁻⁵ or 0.00001

Answer:

(0,-2)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Dividend: Number on top

Divisor: Number on bottom

Quotient: Answer

Dividend ÷ Divisor = Quotient

Answer: x=-1, y=-8

Step-by-step explanation: solve for the first variable in one of the equations then subsitutte the result into the other equation

Answer:

its (5x+8)(25x^2-40x+64

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

c = 4.2h

Step-by-step explanation:

the rate is 16.80 /4

4.20 per hour

earn = hours * rate

c = 4.20h

Answer:

[tex]c=4.20h[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given information:

Given variables:

To find Jasmine's hourly rate, divide the amount she earns by the number of hours worked:

[tex]\implies \dfrac{25.20}{6}=4.2[/tex]

[tex]\implies \dfrac{16.80}{4}=4.2[/tex]

Therefore, Jasmine earns $4.20 per hour.

The function that shows this information is:

[tex]\large\boxed{c=4.20h}[/tex]

Answer:

C. 170

Step-by-step explanation:

68/4=17

17 is 10% of the unknown number

17 times 10 is 170

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

68 is 40% of what number?

A.17

B.136

C.170

D.270

68 : 40 * 100 = 170

Answer:

the domains is

[tex] - 10 < x \leqslant 10[/tex]

Answer:

alternate exterior angles are equal .

17x + 2 = 18x - 2

x = 2 + 2

x = 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

A. 2 toys/5 minutes

y/x

Step-by-step explanation:

Why use brainly for this

When diving fractions, use KFC:

K eep the first fraction the same

F lip the second fraction upside down

C hange the divide sign to a multiply

After, just work it out multiplying the denominators and the numerators together getting your answer

Hope this helped you, have a good day bro cya)

Answer:

Not including circles in total shapes: 1 circle to every 4 squares or 1:4

Including circles in total shapes: 1 circle to every 5 shapes or 1:5

Step-by-step explanation:

16 ÷ 4 = 4

20 ÷ 4 = 5

Answer: 1:5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

click on image

Step-by-step explanation:

click on the image

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

part a = 1 x 4

part b = b

Answer:

y=2x+25

the graph is B.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

20 is answer, hope it helps ypi

Answer:

i think probably 3/7 is answer

Answer:

x = √7km

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

21

Step-by-step explanation:

You take a right triangle and find the lengths of the two sides that are vertical and horizontal. Then, using the formula a^2 + b^2 = c^2, find the length of C

(aka: Hypotenuse)

hope this helps!

Answer:

x = Total meal cost

y = Total cost-plus tip

113% * x  =  y

Answer:

seven

Step-by-step explanation:

Lol thxx for the points

Pls give brainliest! Also, plz sub to kgirl633 on yt.

Answer:

yes

Step-by-step explanation:

x increases by 2, and y increases by 3 consistently

Answer:

No

Step-by-step explanation:

please mark me brainliest

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The total number of choices is 6 * 6 * 6 * 6 = 1296

You have one chance to get it right

That's 1/1296 = 0.00077

Answer:

1/1296

Step-by-step explanation:

The probabilty of getting one of the dials correct is 1/6 because there are 6 letters on each dial. So if there are 4 dials, then the chance is multiplied by itself 4 times (1/6 * 1/6 *1/6 * 1/6). 1/6 * 1/6 *1/6 * 1/6 is equal to 1/1296.