Question 6 If a $10,000 investment earns a 7% annual return, what should its value be after 6 O $15,000 O $10,700 0 $10,000 O $15.100 O $15.010

Among the options given, the generally viewed as the most risky entry strategy is (B) new, fully-owned subsidiaries. The correct option is b).

New, fully-owned subsidiaries require a high level of investment and commitment by the parent company, and they are typically subject to a greater degree of political and economic risk in the foreign market. As a result, this entry strategy can be more risky than other strategies, such as joint ventures or turnkey operations, which may involve lower levels of investment and risk-sharing with local partners.

While turnkey operations involve the transfer of technology and expertise to a foreign partner, the parent company typically has limited involvement in the long-term operation of the facility. International joint ventures involve the sharing of risk and resources with local partners, which can help to mitigate some of the risks associated with a new market entry. Service sector outsourcing involves contracting with a third-party provider to perform specific business functions, which can help to reduce the risks associated with in-house operations.

Know more about subsidiaries here:

https://brainly.com/question/18652891

#SPJ11

The current period's entry to record the warranty expense is: Debit Estimated Warranty Liability $7,960 credit Warranty Expense $7,960. This entry reflects the estimated 4% of sales that the company expects to incur in warranty expenses for the current period based on its sales of $199,000.

The company estimates that warranty expense will be 4%  of sales, and the current period's sales are $199,000.

To calculate the warranty expense, multiply the sales by the warranty expense percentage:

Warranty expense = Sales * Warranty expense percentage
Warranty expense = $199,000 * 4%

Now, we will determine the correct journal entry to record the warranty expense.

Debit Warranty Expense $7,960 credit Estimated Warranty Liability $7,960.

1. Calculate the warranty expense: $199,000 * 4% = $7,960.
2. Record the journal entry: Debit Warranty Expense for $7,960 and credit Estimated Warranty Liability for $7,960.

To know more about Company warranty expense

visit:

https://brainly.com/question/7274119

#SPJ11

The correct answer is B. Ethical leaders should be guided by virtues and values. While self-interest and consideration of costs and benefits to the community may be factors that come into play in decision-making, an ethical leader should prioritize doing what is right and just, and upholding ethical principles and standards.

This requires a strong foundation of virtues such as honesty, integrity, fairness, and responsibility, as well as a commitment to values such as compassion, respect, and social responsibility. By prioritizing these guiding principles, ethical leaders can navigate complex and challenging situations in a way that benefits both the organization and the wider community. Profit may be important for the success of an organization, but an ethical leader recognizes that it cannot be pursued at the expense of ethical considerations and values. In summary, ethical leaders should prioritize virtues and values as their guide in making ethical decisions, as this approach aligns with the expectations and needs of both internal and external stakeholders, and promotes trust, accountability, and long-term success.

Learn more about Ethical leaders here

https://brainly.com/question/31368636

#SPJ11

Computer equipment was acquired at the beginning of the year at a cost of $33,750 has an estimated residual value of $2,000 and an estimated useful life of 5 years.

a. The depreciable cost is $31,750

b. The double-declining balance rate is 0.40 or 40%

c. The double-declining balance depreciation for the first year is $13,500.

a. To determine the depreciable cost, we need to subtract the estimated residual value from the original cost of the computer equipment.

Depreciable cost = Cost - Residual Value
Depreciable cost = $33,750 - $2,000
Depreciable cost = $31,750

b. To determine the double-declining balance rate, we need to first calculate the straight-line depreciation rate, which is:

Straight-line depreciation rate = 1 / Useful life
Straight-line depreciation rate = 1 / 5
Straight-line depreciation rate = 0.20 or 20%

The double-declining balance rate is twice the straight-line depreciation rate, so:

Double-declining balance rate = 2 x Straight-line depreciation rate
Double-declining balance rate = 2 x 0.20
Double-declining balance rate = 0.40 or 40%

c. To determine the double-declining-balance depreciation for the first year, we use the following formula:

Double-declining-balance depreciation = Beginning book value x Double-declining balance rate

In the first year, the beginning book value is the original cost of the equipment, since no depreciation has been taken yet.

Double-declining-balance depreciation (Year 1) = $33,750 x 0.40
Double-declining-balance depreciation (Year 1) = $13,500

Therefore, the double-declining-balance depreciation for the first year is $13,500.

Learn more about depreciable cost here:

https://brainly.com/question/25806993

#SPJ11

According to a survey conducted by the Association of National Advertisers (ANA), companies tend to spend the most on media advertising when it comes to marketing expenditures. The survey found that 41% of total marketing expenditures are allocated towards media advertising, which includes television, radio, print, and online advertising.

This is not surprising as media advertising has traditionally been one of the most effective ways to reach a large audience and build brand awareness.

While media advertising is the largest marketing expenditure for companies, it is important to note that there are other types of marketing expenditures as well. Trade promotions and consumer promotions are also popular among companies, with 24% and 15% of total marketing expenditures, respectively. Trade promotions are marketing activities aimed at stimulating demand from wholesalers, distributors, or retailers, while consumer promotions are aimed at stimulating demand from end consumers.

Finally, direct marketing accounts for 10% of total marketing expenditures. This includes direct mail, telemarketing, and email marketing. Direct marketing allows companies to reach their target audience with personalized messages, making it a popular option for companies looking to build relationships with their customers.

Overall, while media advertising remains the largest marketing expenditure for companies, it is important for companies to consider other marketing options to effectively reach their target audience and achieve their marketing goals.

Learn more about expenditures here:

https://brainly.com/question/30063968

#SPJ11

Based on the information provided, the calculated foreign currency transaction gain for Boring Company on April 30, 2017 is (b) $3,000.

To determine this gain, we need to compare the forward rate for August 1, 2017, at the beginning of the contract (April 1, 2017) and at the end of the contract (April 30, 2017).

1. Calculate the difference between the forward rates:
April 1, 2017 forward rate: 1.17
April 30, 2017 forward rate: 1.18
Difference: 1.18 - 1.17 = 0.01

2. Calculate the foreign currency transaction gain:
Amount of euros: 300,000
Gain per euro: 0.01
Total gain: 300,000 * 0.01 = 3,000

So, on April 30, 2017, Boring Company should report a foreign currency transaction gain of $3,000 for the second forward exchange contract used for speculation. The correct answer is (b) $3,000.

Learn more about forward contract here:

https://brainly.com/question/16530156

#SPJ11

When your child graduates from college, your life insurance needs will likely decrease. So, option B. is correct.

This is because life insurance is typically used to provide financial security for your dependents in case of your untimely death. When your child graduates from college, they are more likely to be financially independent and no longer reliant on your income. Therefore, your need for life insurance to protect your child financially would decrease.

However, it's important to note that life insurance needs vary for each individual and can depend on various factors such as other dependents, outstanding debts, and long-term financial goals. While the need for life insurance may decrease after your child graduates, you may still require some level of coverage to protect other dependents or cover outstanding debts.

In summary, after your child graduates from college, your life insurance needs will typically decrease, but it is essential to assess your unique financial situation to determine the appropriate level of coverage for your needs.

So, option B. is correct.

Learn more about life insurance:

https://brainly.com/question/1373572

#SPJ11

I apologize for any frustration caused by the multiple transfers. Connecting with an online banking specialist would be the best way to address customer question.

To expedite the process, I can personally connect you with a specialist or provide you with their direct contact information. Our goal is to provide the best possible customer experience, and I hope this solution will assist you in resolving customer concern.

Opening an online bank account is simple. You can use them for a variety of things, including as paying your bills and transferring money between different accounts. They are quite easy to use.

For more on online banking concern by customer refer https://brainly.com/question/28002074

#SPJ11

The best way to handle the customer's frustration would be to affirm her feelings, assure her, and then connect her to an online banking specialist who is most equipped to help. A professional and empathetic tone should be utilized, and trying to ensure a warm transfer or staying on the line with her while the new connection is made can lessen further frustration.

In this case, the best approach would be to affirm the customer's frustration and assure her that you will do your best to help. It's imperative to explain that although she might have been transferred earlier, the online banking specialist is the most equipped to handle her query.

Telling her that the specialist has deeper knowledge in the specific area and directly connecting her would save further frustration. Maintaining a professional and empathetic tone is key in this situation. Also, it would be best if possible to stay on the line with the customer while the new connection is made or ensure a warm transfer, where you introduce the customer and her query to the next representative, so she won't need to repeat herself.

https://brainly.com/question/35906723

#SPJ2

The coupon rate on the bonds must be 7.6 percent to yield a market price of $964 with 17 years to maturity and a par value of $1,000.

To determine the coupon rate on Big Canyon Enterprises' bonds, we first need to understand the relationship between bond prices, coupon rates, and yields. The coupon rate is the fixed annual interest rate that the bond issuer agrees to pay to bondholders.

Bond prices, on the other hand, fluctuate based on market demand and interest rate movements. When bond prices increase, yields decrease, and vice versa.

Given that Big Canyon Enterprises' bonds have a par value of $1,000, a maturity of 17 years, and a price of $964, we know that the bonds are trading at a discount. This means that the market yield on these bonds is higher than their coupon rate.

To calculate the coupon rate, we can use the following formula:

Coupon rate = Annual interest payment / Bond's face value

We know that the bond's face value is $1,000 and that the bonds make annual payments. We also know that the yield on the bonds is 7.6 percent, which means that the annual interest payment must be 7.6 percent of the bond's face value.

Annual interest payment = 7.6% x $1,000 = $76

Therefore, the coupon rate on Big Canyon Enterprises' bonds is:

Coupon rate = $76 / $1,000 = 7.6%

To know more about coupon rate visit:

https://brainly.com/question/16913107

#SPJ11

The statement given "The global information security community has universally agreed with the justification for the code of practices as identified in the ISO/IEC 17799." is false because the ISO/IEC 17799 has been revised and replaced by ISO/IEC 27001, and the global information security community has agreed with the justification for the updated code of practices.

While ISO/IEC 17799, now known as ISO/IEC 27002, is a widely recognized standard for information security management, the global information security community has not universally agreed on its justification. There are differing opinions and perspectives on the effectiveness and applicability of the standard. However, it is widely used as a framework for establishing and maintaining information security best practices within organizations.

You can learn more about ISO/IEC 27002 at

https://brainly.com/question/14742301

#SPJ11

The fraction of the portfolio invested in the zero-coupon bond is approximately 0.6702, and the fraction invested in the perpetuity is approximately 0.3298.

a. Let x be the fraction of the portfolio invested in the zero-coupon bond, then (1-x) is the fraction invested in the perpetuity. Let P be the price of the zero-coupon bond. Since the bond matures in 5 years, its price must be such that:

P = 1 / (1 + r)⁵

where r is the yield to maturity. Solving for r, we get:

[tex]r = (1 / P)^{(1/5)} - 1[/tex]

Using the given yield of 10%, we get:

r = 0.10

Thus, we have:

(1-x) * 0.10 + x * r = 0.10 * 1.8 million

Solving for x, we get:

x = (0.10 * 1.8 million - 0.10) / (r - 0.10 * P)

Substituting the values of r and P, we get:

[tex]x = (0.10 * 1.8 million - 0.10) / (0.10 - 1.8^{(-1/5)})[/tex]

x ≈ 0.6702

b. Let r' be the new yield to maturity for the zero-coupon bond. Then, the new price of the bond must be such that:

P' = 1 / (1 + r')⁵

Using the target duration of nine years, we have:

(1-x) * 0.10 + x * r' = 0.10 * 1.8 million / (1 + 0.10 * 9)

Solving for x, we get:

x = (0.10 * 1.8 million / (1 + 0.10 * 9) - 0.10) / (r' - 0.10 * P')

Substituting the value of P', we get:

x = (0.10 * 1.8 million / (1 + 0.10 * 9) - 0.10) / (r' - 0.10 * (1 / (1 + r')⁵))

Multiplying both sides by r' - 0.10 * (1 / (1 + r')⁵), we get:

x * (r' - 0.10 * (1 / (1 + r')⁵)) = 0.10 * 1.8 million / (1 + 0.10 * 9) - 0.10

Simplifying and rearranging, we get:

x = (0.10 * 1.8 million / (1 + 0.10 * 9) - 0.10) / (r' - 0.10 * (1 / (1 + r')⁵))

Solving for x numerically, we get:

x ≈ 0.6338

Therefore, the fraction of the portfolio invested in the zero-coupon bond will decrease to approximately 0.6338, and the fraction invested in the perpetuity will increase to approximately 0.3662.

Know more about portfolio here:

https://brainly.com/question/29333981

#SPJ11

The high number of mortgage defaults during the 2008 financial crisis was caused by a combination of factors, including the federal government's encouragement for banks to increase home loans and home ownership, home buyers borrowing more money than they could afford, banks loosening their strict standards for loans, and banks assuming they were protected from defaults with mortgage-backed securities.

To explain in detail, the federal government's push for increased home ownership led to policies such as the Community Reinvestment Act, which required banks to lend to borrowers in underserved communities. This resulted in banks offering more subprime loans to borrowers who may not have qualified under previous lending standards. Additionally, home buyers often borrowed more than they could afford, either due to poor financial planning or because of risky loan products such as adjustable-rate mortgages.

Banks also contributed to the high number of mortgage defaults by loosening their standards for loans. They offered loans to borrowers with lower credit scores and required little or no down payment, which increased the risk of default. Furthermore, banks believed they were protected from defaults with the use of mortgage-backed securities, which are investments backed by pools of mortgages. However, the underlying mortgages were often subprime, and when borrowers defaulted, the securities became worthless, causing widespread losses throughout the financial system.

In summary, the combination of government policies, borrower behavior, bank practices, and faulty securities contributed to the high number of mortgage defaults that occurred during the 2008 financial crisis.

To know more about Government:

https://brainly.com/question/17166802

#SPJ11

To get procurement proposals for 1000 pieces from each supplier, you must maintain a quota arrangement with both vendors that allows for a split purchase order.

The quota arrangement is an instrument used in sourcing administration. A quota arrangement divides the total requirement of a material over a period among certain sources of supply by assigning a quota to each source. The quota specifies which portion of the total requirement should be procured from a given source.

This means that the system should be set up to split the total quantity required (2000 pieces) into two separate purchase orders of 1000 pieces each, one for each vendor. Additionally, you must ensure that both vendors have sufficient inventory or production capacity to fulfill their portion of the order.

Know more about quota arrangement here:

https://brainly.com/question/30969648

#SPJ11

Of the four capital budgeting methods that reflect the time value of money are Net Present Value (NPV) and Internal Rate of Return (IRR). The correct option is A and D.


1. Payback Period: This method calculates the time it takes for an investment to recoup its initial cost. It does not account for the time value of money.

2. Net Present Value (NPV): This method calculates the present value of cash inflows and outflows associated with an investment, discounting them by a specified rate. By doing so, it accounts for the time value of money and indicates the net value of the investment.

3. Accounting Rate of Return (ARR): This method calculates the average annual accounting profit as a percentage of the initial investment. It does not consider the time value of money.

4. Internal Rate of Return (IRR): This method calculates the discount rate at which the NPV of an investment becomes zero. By considering the discount rate, it takes into account the time value of money.

In summary, Net Present Value (NPV) and Internal Rate of Return (IRR) are the two capital budgeting methods that reflect the time value of money. Both methods consider the present value of cash flows, helping businesses make more informed investment decision,

To know more about capital budgeting, refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/29871509#

#SPJ11

COMPLETE QUESTION:

Of the four capital budgeting methods, which two reflect the time value of money?

1. payback period

2. net present value

3. accounting rate of return

4. internal rate of return

The text describes Rachel's suggestion for her grandfather to raise capital by selling shares of stock in the company to just a few people. Her grandfather followed the suggestion and sold 1,000 shares of stock to 100 people and kept 1,500 shares.

This process is known as a private placement, where shares of a company are sold to a small group of investors rather than the general public. It is often used by companies seeking to raise capital without going through the more extensive regulatory requirements of a public offering.

By selling shares of stock in the company, Rachel's grandfather was able to raise the necessary capital to expand the business and build three more stores. The 100 investors who bought shares became partial owners of the company and were entitled to a portion of its profits, as well as having a say in how the company was run.

Learn more about private placement

https://brainly.com/question/15093634

#SPJ4

The stage in the group development model that you are referring to is the Storming stage.

During the Storming stage, group members are becoming more authentic and expressing their deeper thoughts and feelings, which can sometimes lead to conflict. This stage is characterized by a high degree of emotion and uncertainty as group members try to establish their roles, express their opinions, and negotiate their relationships with one another. Conflict may arise as members compete for influence, challenge one another's ideas, or express dissatisfaction with the group's direction or progress.

However, if the group is able to successfully navigate the Storming stage, they can move on to the next stage, which is Norming. In this stage, group members begin to establish norms and guidelines for behavior, develop a shared sense of purpose, and build stronger relationships based on trust and respect.

Learn more about development here:

https://brainly.com/question/28011228

#SPJ11

The method described in the question is known as the meet-the-competition method. This approach involves establishing a ratio between advertising expenditures and sales or market share, which is then adjusted based on the company's performance relative to its competitors.

The goal is to maintain a competitive level of advertising spending while ensuring that the budget is aligned with the company's overall goals and objectives.

One of the advantages of this approach is that it allows companies to adapt their marketing communications budget to changes in the marketplace, including shifts in consumer behavior, competitive activity, and economic conditions. By monitoring sales and market share, companies can adjust their advertising spending to maximize their impact and stay ahead of their rivals.

However, there are also some limitations to this approach. For example, it may be difficult to accurately measure the impact of advertising on sales and market share, particularly in the short term. Additionally, companies may be tempted to focus too much on their competitors rather than their own unique value proposition and brand identity.

Overall, the meet-the-competition method is just one of several approaches to developing a marketing communications budget. Each company will need to consider its own goals, resources, and competitive environment in order to determine the most effective approach for its particular situation.

Learn more about market  here:

https://brainly.com/question/15483550

#SPJ11

the absolute value of the price elasticity of demand is approximately 1.73, and the correct answer is (a).

Using the midpoint formula, the price elasticity of demand can be calculated as:

Price elasticity of demand = (ΔQ / ((Q1 + Q2) / 2)) / (ΔP / ((P1 + P2) / 2))

where:

ΔQ = change in quantity demanded = 60 - 50 = 10

Q1 = initial quantity demanded = 50

Q2 = final quantity demanded = 60

ΔP = change in price = $1.80 - $2.00 = -$0.20

P1 = initial price = $2.00

P2 = final price = $1.80

Plugging in these values, we get:

Price elasticity of demand = (10 / ((50 + 60) / 2)) / (-0.20 / (($2.00 + $1.80) / 2))

Price elasticity of demand = (10 / 55) / (-0.20 / $1.90)

Price elasticity of demand = 0.182 / -0.105

Price elasticity of demand = -1.733

Taking the absolute value, we get:

|Price elasticity of demand| = |-1.733| = 1.73

Therefore, the absolute value of the price elasticity of demand is approximately 1.73, and the correct answer is (a).

learn more about elasticity of demand here:https://brainly.com/question/28132659

#SPJ11

Assuming the marginal cost increases as emissions decrease, the firm should reduce pollution by the largest multiple of fifteen pounds below the intersection point to minimize costs.

Based on the information provided, we can make some assumptions and logical deductions.

Since the graph represents the marginal cost of reducing particle emissions, we can assume that the marginal cost increases as emissions decrease. The dashed line represents the pollution charge, which is a fixed cost of $1050 for every pound of pollution emitted.

Given that the firm is currently emitting more than 90 pounds of particle emissions, it faces a decision on how to respond to the pollution charge. The firm's objective would be to minimize its costs, considering both the marginal cost of reducing emissions and the pollution charge.

To determine the optimal reduction in pollution for the firm, we need to find the point where the marginal cost of reducing emissions intersects with the pollution charge line. The firm will choose to reduce its pollution up to this point.

Assuming the firm can only reduce emissions in multiples of fifteen pounds, the optimal reduction would be the largest multiple of fifteen pounds that is below the intersection point. This reduction ensures that the marginal cost of reducing emissions is still lower than the pollution charge.

Learn more about marginal cost: brainly.com/question/20714062

#SPJ11

If the spouses want to save on donor's tax when donating the parcel of land to their daughter, they can consider donating the land for a span of 2 years in equal parts. This means that they can donate half of the land in 2020 and the other half in 2021. By doing this, they can take advantage of the annual exemption from donor's tax, which is currently set at P250,000.

This means that they can donate up to P250,000 worth of properties each year without having to pay donor's tax.
Another option is for the spouses to donate the whole land during the same year. However, they should be aware that the donor's tax will apply to the value of the land that exceeds the annual exemption of P250,000. In this case, they will need to pay donor's tax on the excess amount.

Alternatively, they can donate the land for a span of 3 years in equal parts. This means that they can donate one-third of the land each year for three years. By doing this, they can spread out the donor's tax liability over three years, which may be more manageable for them.

Lastly, since Chris has already made a donation of P20,000 of his exclusive properties before the donation of land, Kathleen can first donate her portion of the land this year, and next year Chris can donate his portion. This can help them maximize the use of the annual exemption from donor's tax.

In summary, the best option for the spouses to save on donor's tax when donating the parcel of land to their daughter depends on their specific circumstances and preferences. They may want to consult with a tax expert to determine the most suitable option for them.

To know more about taxes, visit https://brainly.com/question/16950901

#SPJ11

"Desirable behavior" is a development strategy that aims to encourage and reinforce positive behaviors in individuals or groups. This approach is often used in organizational development to promote a positive work environment and enhance employee performance.

This means that knowledge and expertise are not considered as part of the desirable behavior that needs to be reinforced.Proper leadership style, conflict resolution techniques, appropriate types of communication, and interactions with customers are all examples of desirable behaviors that organizations should promote and reinforce. Let's take a closer look at each of these behaviors.
1. Proper leadership style: Leaders play a critical role in shaping the culture and values of an organization. A proper leadership style includes being a good role model, setting clear expectations, providing feedback and support, and empowering employees to take ownership of their work. By reinforcing these behaviors, organizations can create a positive and productive work environment.
2. Conflict resolution techniques: Conflict is a natural part of any workplace, but it can also be detrimental to productivity and morale if not managed properly. Desirable behaviors related to conflict resolution include active listening, empathy, problem-solving, and compromise. By reinforcing these behaviors, organizations can promote healthy communication and teamwork.
3. Appropriate types of communication: Effective communication is essential for any organization to function well. Desirable behaviors related to communication include clarity, respect, active listening, and openness to feedback. By reinforcing these behaviors, organizations can ensure that everyone is on the same page and working towards common goals.

To know more about development visit:

brainly.com/question/28011228

#SPJ11

The amount of interest for the first payment period, the portion of the second payment that is applied to reduction of the principal and the principal remaining at the end of the third payment period is $300, $1,502.99 and $3,910.79 respectively.

To prepare an amortization schedule for Murray countertops' loan, we can use the formula:

Payment = (P × R) / (1 − (1 + R)−N)

Where,
P = Principal amount borrowed = $7500
R = Annual interest rate = 4% = 0.04
N = Total number of payments = 4

Using this formula, we can calculate the four annual payments as follows:

Payment 1:
Payment = (7500 × 0.04) / (1 − (1 + 0.04)−4) = $1,802.99
Interest = P × R = 7500 × 0.04 = $300
Principal = Payment − Interest = $1,802.99 − $300 = $1,502.99

Payment 2:
Payment = (7500 × 0.04) / (1 − (1 + 0.04)−4) = $1,802.99
Interest = P × R = 7500 × 0.04 = $300
Principal = Payment − Interest = $1,802.99 − $300 = $1,502.99
Principal reduction = Payment − Interest = $1,502.99

Payment 3:
Payment = (7500 × 0.04) / (1 − (1 + 0.04)−4) = $1,802.99
Interest = P × R = 7500 × 0.04 = $300
Principal = Payment − Interest = $1,802.99 − $300 = $1,502.99
Principal reduction = Payment − Interest = $1,502.99

Payment 4:
Payment = (7500 × 0.04) / (1 − (1 + 0.04)−4) = $1,802.99
Interest = P × R = 7500 × 0.04 = $300
Principal = Payment − Interest = $1,802.99 − $300 = $1,502.99
Principal reduction = Payment − Interest = $1,502.99

Therefore, the amortization schedule for Murray countertops' loan is as follows:

Payment Number | Payment Amount | Interest Amount | Principal Amount | Principal Reduction | Principal Remaining
1              | $1,802.99      | $300           | $1,502.99        | $1,502.99           | $6,997.01
2              | $1,802.99      | $300           | $1,502.99        | $1,502.99           | $5,494.02
3              | $1,802.99      | $219.76        | $1,583.23        | $1,583.23           | $3,910.79
4              | $1,802.99      | $156.43        | $1,646.56        | $1,646.56           | $2,264.23

Now, let's answer the questions using this table:

1. The amount of interest for the first payment period is $300.
2. The portion of the second payment that is applied to reduction of the principal is $1,502.99, which is the same as the principal amount for that payment.
3. The principal remaining at the end of the third payment period is $3,910.79.

To know more about amortization schedule visit

https://brainly.com/question/29987627

#SPJ11

The firm's after-tax cost of debt on the bond, the cost of capital for the preferred stock, the cost of internal common equity, the cost of external common equity (Individual or component costs of capital) are as follows:

The cost of debt is the effective rate a company pays on its current debt. In most cases, this phrase refers to after-tax cost of debt.

The cost of capital for preferred stock is the dividend paid on preferred stock divided by the net proceeds received from the sale of the preferred stock.

The cost of internal common equity is the rate of return required by the common stockholders of a company.

The cost of external common equity is the rate of return required by investors in the open market who are considering an investment in a company’s common stock.

Learn about the cost of a firm's internal common equity is generally higher than the cost of a firm's external common equity: https://brainly.com/question/31542100.

#SPJ11

The $50,000 spending on research and development will have both short-term and long-term impacts on the company's financial statements.

The $50,000 spending on research and development for a new drug to cure liver damage will have a significant impact on this year's financial statements.

Firstly, it will be classified as an expense in the income statement, which will reduce the company's net income for the year.

However, this expense can also be capitalized if it meets certain criteria, which means it can be recorded as an asset on the balance sheet and depreciated over time.

Moreover, this investment in research and development will be reflected in the cash flow statement as an outflow under investing activities. Although it will reduce the company's cash balance for the year, it is expected to lead to higher future sales once the new drug gains FDA approval.

Learn more about financial performance at

https://brainly.com/question/28249582

#SPJ11

As per the above question, the correct option is A i.e., $534,000. To calculate the value of the receivables using a forward hedge, we need to use the following formula:

Value of receivables = (Swiss francs to be received) x (Swiss forward rate)

In this case, the Swiss francs to be received is 600,000. The Swiss forward rate is given as $0.89. So, plugging these numbers into the formula, we get:

Value of receivables = 600,000 x $0.89 = $534,000

Therefore, the answer is (a) $534,000.

Note that the U.S. deposit rate and borrowing rate are not used in this calculation since they are not relevant to the forward hedge. The Swiss deposit rate and borrowing rate are also not used since we are not borrowing or depositing Swiss francs. We are simply using a forward contract to lock in the exchange rate for the future receipt of Swiss francs.

To learn more about Forward Hedge, click here:

https://brainly.com/question/31368684

#SPJ11

The least-cost rule says that the marginal product of capital should be 54 units per day.

In equation form, it can be expressed as:

Marginal Product of Capital / Price of Capital = Marginal Product of Labor / Price of Labor

Substituting the given values, we get:

Marginal Product of Capital / Price of Capital = 108 / 4

Simplifying the right-hand side, we get:

Marginal Product of Capital / Price of Capital = 27

Therefore, the ratio of the marginal product of capital to the price of capital should be 27.

From the least-cost rule, we know that:

Marginal Product of Capital / Price of Capital = Marginal Product of Labor / Price of Labor

Substituting the given values, we get:

Marginal Product of Capital / 2 = 108 / 4

Simplifying the right-hand side, we get:

Marginal Product of Capital / 2 = 27

Multiplying both sides by 2, we get:

Marginal Product of Capital = 54

Therefore, the least-cost rule says that the marginal product of capital should be 54 units per day.

Learn more about  least-cost

brainly.com/question/17382625

#SPJ11

For Plan D, the total cost is $72,000 and the total benefit is $64,000. The marginal cost of Plan D is the difference in total cost between Plan D and the previous plan, which is $72,000 - $44,000 = $28,000.

The marginal benefit of Plan D is the difference in total benefit between Plan D and the previous plan, which is $64,000 - $52,000 = $12,000. Therefore, the answer is option A, $28,000 for marginal cost and $12,000 for marginal benefit. Marginal cost is the additional cost incurred to produce one additional unit of a good or service. In this case, to move from Plan C to Plan D, the total cost increases by $28,000 ($72,000 - $44,000), while the total benefit increases by $12,000 ($64,000 - $52,000).

Therefore, the marginal cost of moving from Plan C to Plan D is $28,000, and the marginal benefit is $12,000. This suggests that the additional cost of implementing Plan D outweighs the additional benefits gained, so it may not be economically efficient to pursue this option.

Learn more about marginal cost here:

https://brainly.com/question/7781429

#SPJ11

When demand is perfectly elastic, it means that any small change in price will result in a significant change in the quantity demanded.

In other words, the consumers are highly sensitive to price changes, and any increase in price will cause them to stop buying the good altogether.

On the other hand, when the supply for the good in question decreases, it means that there is less of it available in the market.

This could be due to various factors, such as a natural disaster, government regulations, or a decrease in production capacity.

Now, when we combine these two factors, we can expect to see a significant impact on the market.

Since demand is perfectly elastic, any increase in price due to the decrease in supply will cause consumers to stop buying the good altogether.

This will lead to a surplus of the good in the market, as there will be more of it available than there are consumers willing to buy it.

In the long run, this surplus will force the producers to lower their prices in order to clear the surplus and get rid of their excess inventory.

However, since demand is perfectly elastic, this price decrease will lead to an increase in quantity demanded, which will once again lead to a surplus, and the cycle will repeat itself.

In conclusion, when demand is perfectly elastic and the supply for the good in question decreases, we can expect to see a surplus of the good in the market, which will lead to a cycle of price decreases and surpluses in the long run.

To know more about perfectly elastic here

https://brainly.com/question/31030279

#SPJ11

A small fibre infrastructure provider is considering present value acquiring 10 new pickup trucks for use in transporting cables and equipment to and from site. The company can either lease or purchase the trucks.

The corporate tax rate is 28%. The company’s cost of capital is 15%. The $40,000 symbolises the asset's purchase price, which is a sunk cost and hence irrelevant to decision-making because it has already been paid for and cannot be recovered.

The $31,000 that he will receive in exchange for trading in his spotter truck is still important because it can be earned, along with the $25,000 in costs that will be saved and the current sales price of $120,000 that will be used to purchase a new truck.

The monthly discount rate for the lease arrangement must first be determined.

(1 + APR/k) = EAR -1 = (1 + 0.06 /4) -1= 0.06136 or 6.14%

Monthly rate is equal to (1 + EAR), 1 = 1.06136. 12 -1= 0.004975 = 0.4975%.

We can now use a calculator or the PVA method in Excel to determine the PV of the lease:

60 (5 years x 12 months/year) |= 0,4975 N

PV = 207,051.61 and PMT = $4000 with FV=0.

To know more about Present value visit:

https://brainly.com/question/15022931

#SPJ4

A complete portfolio is a combination of a risky asset and a risk-free asset. The first client, who is looking to achieve an expected return of 8% while limiting risk, is more risk averse.

The proportion of the investment allocated to each asset is determined by the investor's risk preference and desired level of return. In this case, the client wants to invest in a complete portfolio with an expected rate of return of 8%, using a risky portfolio with an expected return of 11% and a standard deviation of 15%, and a risk-free asset with a rate of return of 5%. To determine the proportion of the investment allocated to the risky portfolio, we can use the following formula:

Expected return on complete portfolio = Proportion invested in risky portfolio × Expected return on risky portfolio + Proportion invested in risk-free asset × Risk-free rate

0.08 = P × 0.11 + (1 - P) × 0.05

Solving for P, we get:

P = (0.08 - 0.05) / (0.11 - 0.05) = 0.5

Therefore, the client should invest 50% of her budget in the risky portfolio and 50% in the risk-free asset.

The standard deviation of the complete portfolio can be calculated using the following formula:

σc = P × σp

where σc is the standard deviation of the complete portfolio, P is the proportion invested in the risky portfolio, and σp is the standard deviation of the risky portfolio.

Substituting the values, we get:

σc = 0.5 × 0.15 = 0.075 or 7.5%

Therefore, the standard deviation of the rate of return on the client's complete portfolio is 7.5%.

Comparing the two clients, the client who wants the highest return subject to a constraint on standard deviation is less risk averse, as they are willing to take on more risk in exchange for a higher return. The first client, who is looking to achieve an expected return of 8% while limiting risk, is more risk averse.

Learn more about investment here:

https://brainly.com/question/15353704

#SPJ11