Please help. Brainliest to correct answer.

Answer:

because is the probability is 0.17 and 0.34 is fair

You can use the multiplication rule of probability.

The probability of event B happening if event A has already happened is 0.5

[tex]P( A \: \rm and \: B) = P(A)P(B|A) = P(B)P(A|B)[/tex]

Since we've to find the probability of B given that A has already happened, we need [tex]P(B|A)[/tex]

Since the probability of both event A and event B happening simultaneously is 0.17, thus:
[tex]P(A \: \rm and \: B) = 0.17\\ [/tex]

Since the probability of only event A happening is 0.34, thus:

[tex]P(A) = 0.34[/tex]

Thus, from the multiplication rule, we have:
[tex]P(A \: \rm and \: B) = P(A)P(B|A)\\ 0.17 = 0.34 \times P(B|A)\\\\ \dfrac{0.17}{0.34} = P(B|A)\\\\ P(B|A) = \dfrac{1}{2} = 0.5[/tex]

Thus, we have the probability of event B happening when A has already happened as 0.5

Learn more about multiplication rule of probability here:

https://brainly.com/question/14450597

Answer:

400

Step-by-step explanation:

it says average which probably means 400

33.36% of these homes have a value greater than $83,500.

The z score is used to determine by how many standard deviations the raw score is above or below the mean. It is given by:

[tex]z=\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma} \\\\where\ x \ is\ raw\ score,\mu=mean,\sigma=standard\ deviation[/tex]

Given that μ = $82000, σ = $5000.

For x > 83500:

[tex]z=\frac{83500-82000}{5000} =0.43[/tex]

From the normal distribution table, P(x > 83500) = P(z > 0.43) = 1 - P(z < 0.43) = 1 - 0.6664 = 33.36%

33.36% of these homes have a value greater than $83,500.

Find out more at: https://brainly.com/question/15016913

Answer:

For 100 draws, I would expect green or black to be drawn 35 times.

Step-by-step explanation:

5 + 6 + 3 + 4 + 2 = 20 marbles

I would expect green or black to be drawn 7/20 of the time.

addition process of removing the one marble and adding 100 to the amount of green and black marble

Answer:

3 and i use flvs too, also that pfp is fire

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

the answer is 3

Answer: The rental cost for each movie is $3.25 and each video game is $5.25.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let x = rental cost for each movie

y = rental cost for each video game.

As per given , we have

6x+2y= 30    (i)

3x+5y = 36     (ii)

Multiply 2 on both sides of (ii)

6x+10y=72   (iii)

Eliminate (i) from (iii)

8y=42

⇒ y= 5.25

Put y=5.25 in (ii)

3x+5(5.25)=36

⇒  3x+26.25 =36

⇒  3x = 36-26.25

⇒  3x =9.75

⇒  x = 3.25   [Divide both sides by 3]

Hence, the rental cost for each movie is $3.25 and each video game is $5.25.

Answer:

2.25 movie

5.25 video game

Step-by-step explanation:

:)

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

13841287201

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps!

Answer:

13481287201

Whatever is in parentheses you do first. So 7 to the power of 6 is multiplying 7 by itself 6 times using the sum of the previous answer. You would get 117649. In other words, use a calculator. Now, you have (117649)^2. So just use a calculator and get 13481287201

Answer: Hi wadfasd here plz mark brainliest and answer can be found below ↓↓↓↓↓↓↓↓↓↓↓↓↓↓↓↓↓

I think the answer is the 4th one but let me know if i am wrong!

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The quotient becomes smaller than the dividend.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1. n = 4

2. n = -29

3. n = -28

4. n = -48

5. n = -22

6. n = 97

7. n = 220

8. n = -18

9. n = 36

Step-by-step explanation:

1. -n = -4

Multiply both by -1 to get n = 4

2. 12 + n = -17

Subtract 12 from both sides of the equation to get n = -29

3. -n/14 = 2

Multiply by 14 on both sides of the equation to get -n = 28

Multiply -1 on both sides of the equation to get n = -28

4. -42 = n + 6

Subtract 6 from both sides of the equation to get -48 = n or n = -48

5. -4n = 88

Divide -4 on both sides of the equation to get n = -22

6. n + -3 = 94

Add 3 to both sides of the equation to get n = 97

7. 11 = -n/-20

Multiply by -20 on both sides of the equation to get -220 = -n or -n = -220

Multiply -1 on both sides of the equation to get n = 220

8. -108 = 6n

Divide by 6 on both sides of the equation to get -18 = n or n = -28

9. 67 = 31 + n

Subtract 31 from both sides of the equation to get 36 = n or n = 36

I Hope That This Helps! :)

Answer:

63

Step-by-step explanation:

=7(1-(-8))

=7(9)

=63

hope this helps

Answer: 63

Step-by-step explanation:

7(1- -8)

7(1+8)

7(9)

63

Answer:

So the answer is 30 of a length

Step-by-step explanation:

equal sides of the length 5 and length 6

Answer:

B, B, A, A, B, B

Step-by-step explanation:

i think this is the correct answer! lmk if its good! :)

Answer:

-2 X3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Approximate rate of change:

Answer:

starting from top to bottom

2

1

3

4

Step-by-step explanation:

In that order

Answer:

Its A and C

Step-by-step explanation:

√73= 8.54

Its on the left side of 9 and on the right side of 7.

We found the answer of 4.5. I had her add another 1.5 which gave us the number 6 in the chart to show proof to her.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

3/5 is the probability of drawing a blue card

Answer:

3/5

Step-by-step explanation:

total sum of probability is 1.

for the probability of drawing a red ball to be 2/5, then probability of drawing a blue ball is

1 - 2/5

Answer:

182.353745455

Answer:180

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Using mid point theorem, A line segment joining the mid points of the two sides of the triangle, is equal to half the length of the third side.

D and E are the mid points. Hence,

DE=

2

1

AC

DE=

2

1

(6.4)

DE=3.2cm

Answer:

AD=BE

Step-by-step explanation:

Because AB and BC are equal, their lengths are also equal and also it is an Isosceles triangle. Therefore the midpoint of AB or the half of AB which is either AD or DE are equal. Vice versa for BC. So AD=BE

Answer:

YOUR MOM

Step-by-step explanation:

LOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOLOLO)LOLOLOLOLLOllll

Answer:

2.3.12.

Step-by-step explanation: