True, Osteopenia is a condition in which a person is at risk of developing osteoporosis but does not yet have it. Bones become brittle and prone to breaking due to the condition.
Osteoporosis, which is characterised by decreased bone mass and poor bone quality, can develop as a result of unregulated bone loss. People with osteoporosis have bones that are easily broken by even a small impact. A minor fall, such as tripping over a loose rug in the living room, might cause a bone to break in someone with osteoporosis.
Bone strength is evaluated using bone density assays. These tests are used by medical professionals to detect osteoporosis and diagnose it. The exams are crucial because they might warn you of issues with your bones before you have fractures.
The complete question is:
T/F: Osteopenia is thinner than average bone density. this term is used to describe the condition of someone who does not yet have osteoporosis, but is at risk for developing it.
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in her studies of chimpanzee behavior, jane goodall collected both qualitative and quantitative data. what of the example of quantitative data?
Mothers and their infants typically nap for two to three hours each afternoon is an example of quantitative data that Jane Goodall collected in her studies of chimpanzee behavior.
Jane Goodall's groundbreaking research on chimpanzees revealed that mothers and their infants typically nap for two to three hours each afternoon, providing a glimpse into the quantitative data of their behavior.
With this insight, Goodall was able to gain a better understanding of the social dynamics of these primates, providing invaluable insight into their behavior and habits.
Quantitative data can be used to compare and contrast different variables, to analyze patterns in data sets, and to make predictions based on the data analysis.
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What do bees do with the pollen that they
take from flowers?
Explanation:
Bees have a layer of fur that lets pollen get caught on the bees. The bees then move on from flower to flower to pollinate other plants to give them more nutrients and help them grow. Bees take pollen, nectar, and other nutrients from flowers.
Answer: Transfer it from plant to plant
Explanation:
Bees transfer pollen from plant to plant so they can be providing the pollination services needed by plants and nature as a whole. :)
diffuse input to the cortex relaying through the thalamus, from what area, keeps the cortex active during wakefulness
While implicit attitudes stimulate the amygdala, explicit attitudes stimulate the orbitofrontal cortex.
Those attitudes that are simple to self-report at the level of conscious awareness are referred to be explicit attitudes. They are easy to detect and report, and they are shaped with purpose. They are the deliberate activities that a person chooses to carry out in their relationships with other people. These attitudes result in the behaviors that other people see.
Implicit attitudes, on the other hand, are those that emerge unintentionally, against our choice, and are typically unknown to us. The amygdala is involved in the automatic processing of socially relevant inputs, while the anterior cingulate and dorsolateral prefrontal cortices are involved in the detection and regulation, respectively, of implicit attitudes.
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the start of the prometaphase stage of mitosis is indicated by which of these? please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. answer choices the chromosomes arrive at spindle poles. the chromosomes condense. the chromosomes line up on the metaphase plate. the nuclear membrane disintegrates.
Prometaphase is the stage of mitosis between prophase and metaphase. The main event that takes place during metaphase is the disintegration of the nuclear membrane.
Prometaphase is an important phase during cell division. In prophase two sister chromatids are formed inside the nucleus. To bring about cell division and separation of the sister chromatids, the nuclear membrane must disintegrate. This happens during the prometaphase.
During this phase kinetochores are also produced, which are proteins that bind to the centromeres and enables in separation of sister chromatids. This stage is also known as late prophase. Here the chromosome condensation is also completed.
So the main indication of the prometaphase is that the nuclear membrane disintegrates.
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during observation a patient depresses the mandible. while opening the mandible moves/gets pulled to the right instead of depressing in a straight line. which of the following is LEAST likely?a. hypertonic right lateral pterygoid
b. hypertonic right medial pterygoid
c. hypertonic right temporalis
d. hypertonic left lateral pterygoid
While opening the mandible moves/gets pulled to the right instead of depressing in a straight line. Hypertonic Right Lateral Pterygoid is LEAST likely.
The craniomandibular muscle known as the lateral pterygoid performs a significant role in the inferior temporal area. It is active during chewing and mandibular motions like protrusion (moving the jaw forward), abduction (moving the mandible downward), and mediotrusion (mandibular condyle movement towards the midline). It functions best when speaking, singing, and clenching.
There are two heads or bellies on the lateral pterygoid muscle. In comparison to the superior belly, the inferior belly is three times bigger. It is the only masticatory muscle with fibres oriented horizontally among all the masticatory muscles.
With the help of the mylohyoid muscle and the anterior belly of the digastric muscle, the lateral pterygoid muscle depresses the jaw and opens the mouth. The lateral pterygoid is the only one of the four masticatory muscles (medial pterygoid, lateral pterygoid, masseter, and temporalis) that is involved in lowering the jaw.
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Please help me!! Answer questions 3 & 4 and imagine answer choices are labeled from A to D
3) the option that is NOT true about X-Chromosomes is:
"Only a few sex-linked traits are carried on the X chromosome"
4) The options which are TRUE about bone cells and bone formation are:
Minerals (primarily calcium-phosphate) precipitate onto collagen secreted by bone cells. (Option D)
Minerals contribute to the compressive strength of bone; i.e. they prevent fractures when bone is exposed to pushing forces. (Option A)
Collagen gives bones their flexibility (ability to withstand tensile forces). (Option C)
What is X-Chromosone?Note that in humans, the X chromosome is one of two sex chromosomes (the other is the Y chromosome).
Each cell contains one of the 23 pairs of human chromosomes, the sex chromosomes. The X chromosome covers roughly 155 million DNA building blocks (base pairs) and accounts for approximately 5% of the total DNA in cells.
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use what you know about natural selection and evolution to describe how plasmids might confer a selective advantage to their host bacteria.
By transferring adoptive genes from the plasmid to the bacterial chromosome, plasmids may provide their host bacterium a selection advantage.
Plasmids found in bacteria have the potential to encode genes for characteristics that might be advantageous to their hosts. These characteristics may include resistance to antibiotics, virulence, tolerance to heavy metals, and the ability to catabolize unusual sources of nutrients. Plasmids, when exposed to certain environmental circumstances, have the potential to confer a wide variety of selection advantages, such as resistance to antibiotics, resistance to toxins or ultraviolet light, and the ability to build biofilms.
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you have isolated a mutant strain of serratia marscesens that has an abnormal ribosome that is not functioning well. which of the following might be affected by this change? group of answer choices motility ability to survive harsh environmental conditions biofilm formation production of proteins three dimensional shape of the cell
Which of coming up next is right and supports the contention that most microorganisms don't actually hurt people? Microorganisms can perform photosynthesis, and disintegration, and be utilized in food creation.
Various gatherings of microorganisms fluctuate in their defenselessness to biocides, with bacterial spores being the safest, trailed by mycobacteria, then, at that point, Gram-negative organic entities, with cocci, by and large, being the most delicate.
It has been resolved that in a shut framework or cluster culture (no food added, no squanders eliminated) microorganisms will fill in an anticipated example, bringing about a development bend made out of four unmistakable periods of development: the slack stage, the remarkable or log stage, the fixed stage, and the passing or decline stage.
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how many total grams of protein and fiber are in the meal? how much iron, potassium, and calcium are in the meal? remember that when you are asked to provide a set of two or more numeric answers, separate them with commas. round to the nearest whole number.
The group advises adults to get 10% to 35% of their energy from protein, 45% to 65% from carbohydrates, as well as 20% to 35% from fat.
2 Additionally, they advise taking less saturated fat than 10% of total calories. It is generally advised to eat 15 to 30 grammes of protein with each meal. According to studies, greater intakes—those of more than 40 grams—in a single session are no more advantageous than the advised 15–30 grammes at a time. In general, most adults would aim for a diet that has 20–35% fat, 10–35% protein, and 45–65% carbohydrates. As a general rule, a lunch portion should be around the size of your palm, or 70 to 100 grammes cooked, and an evening meal amount should be about the size of your hand, or 150 to 200 grammes cooked.
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What conclusion can you draw from the information provided about the brain
A. Injury to the brain stem may result in sensory dysfunction
B. The brain uses a higher percentage of oxygen than any other organ.
C. Eating disorders do not involve testing on any region of the brain.
All regions of the brain are essential for normal human function
E. The cerebrum is the most central region of the brain.
The delicate chemistry of the brain is disturbed by TBI, preventing neurons from functioning correctly.
What transpires in the brain following a head injury? The delicate chemistry of the brain is disturbed by TBI, preventing neurons from functioning correctly.Thinking and behavior are altered as a result of this.For the brain to recover from the chemical imbalance brought on by a TBI, weeks or even months may pass.With more severe cases leading to paralysis, coma, or death, a brain stem damage may produce dizziness or loss of motor coordination.Many patients are unable to work while undergoing treatment for brain stem injuries, which can be quite expensive.Seizures, nerve damage, blood clots, artery narrowing, stroke, coma, and infections in the brain are some of the side effects of a TBI.With more time and stabilizing health, the chance of many of these issues lowers.To learn more about head injury refer
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a body fluid was sent to the microbiology laboratory for culture and after 48 hours of non-co2 incubation, a small catalase-positive, non-spore-forming, diphtheroid-shaped gram-positive rod grew on sheep blood agar. this organism was considered to be a possible contaminant since this organism is part of the normal skin microbiota. which of the following organisms grew in the body fluid?
A body fluid was sent to the microbiology laboratory for culture and after 48 hours of non-co2 incubation, a small catalase-positive, non-spore-forming, diphtheroid-shaped gram-positive rod grew on sheep blood sugar.
It can lead to difficulty heart rhythm problems, breathing and even death. It recommends vaccines for children, infants, teens and adults to prevent diphtheria. Diphtheria referred to a serious infection caused by strains of bacteria called Corynebacterium diphtheriae that make toxin.
Corynebacterium species organisms grew in the body fluid. This organism was considered to be a possible contaminant since this organism is part of the normal skin microbiota. Microbiology is used to provides information that needed to create vaccines and treatments for diseases.
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help meeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeee
Light waves are a. electric and soundlike b. magnetic and soundlike c. electric and magnetic d. electric only
Which of the following does "not" require a physical medium through
which to travel?
a. light
b. sound
c. both light and sound
d. neither light nor sound
consider a population of an annual plant, starting out with a single adult in year 1. suppose that each adult plant generates on average 500 seeds, of which only 15 germinate and grow to adulthood in the following year (the remaining seeds die).
In this scenario, the population of the annual plant starts with just one adult in year 1.
This adult generates an average of 500 seeds, but only 15 of these seeds will germinate and grow to adulthood in the following year. This suggests that the survival rate for the seeds is quite low, with only 3% of the seeds being able to grow into adult plants. As a result, the population growth of the plant will be slow, as only a small number of seeds are able to grow into adults each year. Additionally, the population will be highly dependent on the survival rate of the seeds, as a low survival rate will limit the overall population growth.
There are several ways to improve the survival rate of seeds in this scenario:
Improve seed quality: By selecting high-quality seeds for planting, the chances of germination and growth to adulthood will be higher.Optimize planting conditions: Proper soil preparation, moisture, and temperature conditions can ensure that the seeds have the right environment to germinate and grow.Reduce seed predators: By controlling seed predators such as insects and animals, more seeds will be able to germinate and grow.Provide proper maintenance: Proper maintenance of the adult plants, such as fertilization and pest control, can increase the chances of seed production and survival.Genetic modification: By using genetic engineering to improve the genes of the plant that are associated with seed survival.Use of companion planting: By planting other plants that can repel pests and diseases that attack the annual plant, seed survival rate will be improved.Learn more about annual plant here: brainly.com/question/13449989
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Which of the following properties of life was the Viking Labeled Release experiment designed to detect?A HomeostasisB. GrowthC.Obtain and use energyD.Sense and Respond to SumadiE Reproduction
The correct option is C ; Obtain and use energy , Physiology is the scientific study of the activities and mechanisms of biological systems.
Physiology is the study of how animals, organ systems, different organs, single cells, and biomolecules accomplish chemical and physical activities in living systems.
In terms of chemistry and physics, it involves everything from how molecules act in cells to how organ systems work together. Viking 1 was a Mars-bound interplanetary mission that included an orbiter and a lander. The lander was scheduled to conduct experiments on Martian soil to determine whether or not life existed on Mars. Soil samples were examined for metabolic remnants of former life on the planet.
As a result, the right answer is C, get and use energy.
In this experiment, homeostasis was not measured.
As a result, option A is inaccurate.
Growth cannot be measured on Mars since there is no life.
As a result, option B is inaccurate.
Living things respond to and detect stimuli, yet Mars is devoid of life.
As a result, option D is inaccurate.
On a lifeless world, reproduction cannot be quantified.
As a result, option E is erroneous.
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The anatomical term for the central-most anterior region of the pelvis is ______
The anatomical term for the central-most anterior region of the pelvis is Pubic.
The pubic symphysis is a joint located between your left and right pelvic bones. It allows your pelvis to absorb some of your upper body's weight before it gets to your lower body. It also aids in the separation of your pelvic bones in preparation for vaginal birthing.
The pubic symphysis connects the left and right pelvic bones. Unlike elbow and knee joints, your pubic symphysis does not move significantly. Its primary function is to keep the right and left pelvic bones in place. Nonetheless, it makes little motions that assist your pelvis in absorbing weight from your upper body. When you're pregnant, your joint movements become even more pronounced. During pregnancy, the joint becomes more flexible, allowing your pelvic bones to stretch sufficiently.
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What factors most influence your food choices for meals and snacks? How important are these in your food choices?
Consider personal preferences, physical health, family history, nutritional needs
The factors most influence your food choices for meals and snacks: Nutrition, Hunger, Appetite, Personal Taste, Availability, Time & Convenience, Geography/Climate/Environment, Family & Culture.
What is food choice?Food selection refers to how people decide what to buy and consume. Food choice is influenced by a complex set of factors that vary from person to person and are influenced by culture, heritage, and upbringing. We might look for price if we're on a tight budget, or allergen information if we have a food allergy. The mind will process feelings of hunger or satiety and work on stimulating appetite, which in turn influences food choice based on an individual's last meal, activity, mood, and other similar factors. Food's palatability will also influence its consumption. This refers to the taste, smell, and appearance of the food.
Here,
Nutrition, Hunger, Appetite, Personal Taste, Availability, Time & Convenience, Geography/Climate/Environment, Family & Culture are the factors that most influence your food choices for meals and snacks.
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Which one of the following is least likely to cause a species to become
extinct?
A new disease
B new predator
C new food source
Answer:
C) new food source
Explanation:
Hope it helps! =D
The combination of existing concepts and factors into a new formulation would define which of the following terms?
a. synthesis
b. extension
c. invention
d. analysis
The Dietary Guidelines stresses the importance of adhering to key recommenations for preventing non-communicable diseases. Which of the following are modifiable lifestyle behaviors that improve health outcomes?Multiple ChoiceAiming to eat the recommended amounts of fruits and vegetables daily.Obtaining a minimum of 150 minutes of vigorous exercise daily.Reducing sodium intake to 2400 milligrams per day.Limiting intake of monunsaturated fats.
Aiming to eat the recommended amounts of fruits and vegetables daily and obtain a minimum of 150 minutes of vigorous exercise daily. Here options A and B are the correct answer.
Modifiable lifestyle behaviors that improve health outcomes refer to behaviors that can be changed by individuals and can have a positive impact on their health. Eating the recommended amounts of fruits and vegetables daily is a good way to get essential nutrients and vitamins, reduce the risk of chronic diseases and improve overall health outcomes. Obtaining a minimum of 150 minutes of vigorous exercise daily is another way to improve health outcomes by reducing the risk of chronic diseases, promoting a healthy weight, and maintaining physical and mental well-being. Reducing sodium intake to 2400 milligrams per day is also important for improving health outcomes, as high sodium intake is associated with hypertension, which increases the risk of heart disease and stroke.
(The Dietary Guidelines stress the importance of adhering to key recommendations for preventing non-communicable diseases. Which of the following are modifiable lifestyle behaviors that improve health outcomes?
A - Aim to eat the recommended amounts of fruits and vegetables daily.
B - Obtaining a minimum of 150 minutes of vigorous exercise daily.
C - Reducing sodium intake to 2400 milligrams per day.
D - Limiting intake of monounsaturated fats.)
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Aiming to eat the recommended amounts of fruits and vegetables daily and obtain a minimum of 150 minutes of vigorous exercise daily. Here options A and B are the correct answer.
Modifiable lifestyle behaviors that improve health outcomes refer to behaviors that can be changed by individuals and can have a positive impact on their health.
Eating the recommended amounts of fruits and vegetables daily is a good way to get essential nutrients and vitamins, reduce the risk of chronic diseases and improve overall health outcomes.
Obtaining a minimum of 150 minutes of vigorous exercise daily is another way to improve health outcomes by reducing the risk of chronic diseases, promoting a healthy weight, and maintaining physical and mental well-being.
Reducing sodium intake to 2400 milligrams per day is also important for improving health outcomes, as high sodium intake is associated with hypertension, which increases the risk of heart disease and stroke.
Complete question:
The Dietary Guidelines stress the importance of adhering to key recommendations for preventing non-communicable diseases. Which of the following are modifiable lifestyle behaviors that improve health outcomes? Multiple Choice
A - Aim to eat the recommended amounts of fruits and vegetables daily.
B - Obtaining a minimum of 150 minutes of vigorous exercise daily.
C - Reducing sodium intake to 2400 milligrams per day.
D - Limiting intake of monounsaturated fats.
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true/false. scientific evidence documents the pattern of evolution. the evidence exists in a variety of categories, including direct observation of evolutionary change, the fossil record, homology, and biogeography. sort the following examples into the correct categories.
Consequently, it is accurate to say that the pattern underlying evolution is supported by scientific data.
What's evolution in biology?Evolution is the change in the heritable characteristics of biological populations over time. Evolutionary processes provide diversity at every degree of biological complexity. The final common ancestor of any and all life on Earth is the last universal ancestor. Changes in an organism's heritable characteristics, or genetic makeup, are how organisms evolve. For instance, a person may get the "brown-eye phenotype" from one of their parents because eye color is a heritable trait for humans.
Who discovered evolution?It's general knowledge that Charles Darwin is credited with "discovering" evolution. However, the historical record reveals that between 1748 and 1859, the year when Darwin published Just on Origin of Species, around 70 distinct authors wrote works on the subject of evolution.
Direct evidence of evolution: The emergence of antibiotic-resistant bacteria
Findings of intermediate horse forms and extinct species' shells in the fossil record
Homology: Similarities between the forelimbs of mammals, Tobacco plants and fireflies share the same genetic code. Right whales have a vestige pelvis.
Biogeography: The high concentration of marsupial species in Australia, the similarity of isolated island species to neighbouring mainland species
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What views and beliefs were held, regarding the shape of the earth, in ancient times?
Planes frequently travel around the planet, and no one has ever claimed to have discovered the 'edge' of the Earth.
The early Greeks, Sumerians, Babylonians, Egyptians, and Vikings all thought the Earth was a flat disc or plane surrounded by sea. This was based on what they observed around them.The ancient Chinese thought the Earth was a flat square surrounded by spherical egg-shaped sky. This was due to their belief in a heaven above the Earth.Herodotus, an ancient Greek writer, described the findings of the Phoenicians, a group of explorers and traders. They discovered that the Sun was to their right rather than above them when sailing across Africa. If the Earth is flat, the Sun should always be directly above you.Based on his views of ships with towering masts moving over the horizon, Aristotle (384-322 BC) believed the Earth was a spherical.Aristotle noticed that as ships went beyond the horizon, the hull, or bottom half of a ship, truly vanished from view. The further it proceeded, the less of the ship could be seen - this could only be a bad thing happen if the Earth was spherical.Hence, Observations of the Earth's shadow on the Moon were used to prove that the Earth was spherical.
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item 10 click and drag each label into the correct category to indicate whether the statement describes a substance to which the membrane is permeable or impermeable.
Small polar molecules, oxygen molecules and carbon dioxide are substances to which cell membrane is permeable whereas it is impermeable to large polar molecules, ions, proteins, glucose, nucleic acids.
The cell membrane is present around the cell and performs a number of important functions like providing mechanical support and regulation of substances leaving and entering the cells.
The cell membrane is basically a semi-permeable membrane which allows only selected molecules to pass through it. Permeability is basically the ease with which a molecule can pass through the cell membrane. The cell membrane is impermeable to large polar molecules, ions, proteins, nucleic acids and glucose but it is permeable to small polar molecules, oxygen molecules and carbon dioxide.
--The given question is incomplete, the complete question is
"Identify each label into the correct category to indicate whether the statement describes a substance to which the membrane is permeable or impermeable : Glucose, Proteins, Oxygen molecules, Small polar molecules, Large polar molecules, Ions, Nucleic acids, Carbon dioxide" --
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select the steps in the process of bicarbonate ion production in the pancreas. select all that apply.
By following the stages in the right order, you may understand how the pancreas produces bicarbonate ions: Carbonic acid dissociates into H+ and HCO3-.
Digestive enzymes and bicarbonates are two secretions found in pancreatic juice that are crucial for healthy digestion. Exocrine acinar cells produce and secrete the enzyme, whereas the epithelial cells lining the tiny pancreatic ducts secrete bicarbonate. The pancreas secretes bicarbonate, which the small intestine uses to neutralize chyme.
In order for the digestive enzymes to function, the mixture has to be neutralized. An enzyme- and bicarbonate-rich fluid is secreted by the pancreas. Alkaline secretions are crucial for activating enzymes and buffering acidic chyme as it enters the duodenum. Ingestion, propulsion, mechanical digestion, chemical digestion, absorption, and feces are all examples of digestive processes.
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The spinal cord is the only structure in the central nervous system necessary for which of the following body functions?Coordinated muscle movementTemperature regulationSimple reflexRespiration
Answer: Simple Reflex
anxiety, shortness of breath, tachypnea, jvd (jugular venous distension), and tracheal deviation towards one side describes which of the following? . Aortic aneurism
B. Asthma exacerbation
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Tension pneumothorax - Correct Answer
Anxiety, shortness of breath, tachypnea, JVD (jugular venous distension), and tracheal deviation towards one side describes tension pneumothorax.
A pneumothorax occurs when air gathers inside the chest between the parietal and visceral pleura, causes the lung to collapse. Although it is inside the thoracic cavity, the air is outside the lung. This puts strain on the lung and may cause it to collapse, shifting the structures close by in the process. Pneumothoraces can either be traumatic or not. Uncommon tension pneumothorax has a malignant course and has the potential to be fatal if addressed. When air becomes trapped in the pleural space under positive pressure, it causes mediastinal structures to shift and compromises cardiac function, resulting in a severe condition.
Patients with pneumothoraxes may or may not exhibit symptoms. Many patients may not exhibit any symptoms when they have a minor pneumothorax. However, tension pneumothorax usually has symptoms and has more striking characteristics than spontaneous pneumothorax. It can also occasionally reveal itself subtly.
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The following sequence is the coding DNA strand of the collagen gene: 5' ATG GCG TTC GAA 3' What is the sequence of the corresponding mRNA?
a. 3' ATG GCG TTC GAA 5'
b. 5' AUG GCG UUC CUU 3'
c. 5' AUG GCG UUC GAA 3'
d. 5' UTG GCG TTC GUU 3'
The sequence of the corresponding mRNA is 5' AUG GCG UUC GAA 3' (Option C)
During transcription, the enzyme RNA polymerase recognizes the start codon (ATG in this case) on the DNA template strand and creates a complementary RNA molecule by adding nucleotides that are complementary to the DNA strand. The process of transcription is called transcription, and the enzyme responsible for it is RNA polymerase.
The mRNA sequence is formed by replacing thymine (T) with uracil (U) and then reading the template strand in the 5' to 3' direction.
In this case, the DNA sequence is 5' ATG GCG TTC GAA 3', and the corresponding mRNA sequence would be 5' AUG GCG UUC GAA 3', which is option C.
Option A is the same as the DNA sequence, but the direction is wrong. Option B and D are not a possible mRNA sequence because they contain errors in the base pairing or in the start codon.
what is the complementary sequence of rna nucleotides that would match the strand of dna? enter your letters without spaces. serleuala
The complementary sequence of RNA nucleotides that would match the strand of DNA would be UCAGUACU.
RNA is synthesized by copying a specific strand of DNA, a process called transcription. During transcription, the enzyme RNA polymerase reads the DNA sequence and synthesizes a complementary RNA molecule, using the base pairing rules of A-U and G-C.
In this case, the given strand of DNA is "serleuala".
Here are the complementary RNA nucleotides that match the strand of DNA:
S-U
E-C
R-A
L-G
E-U
U-A
A-U
L-C
A-U
So the RNA strand would be UCAGUACU.
The process of transcription is the first step of protein synthesis in which the genetic information encoded in DNA is transcribed into a single-stranded RNA molecule using the base pairing rules of A-U and G-C
Where A in the DNA is complementary to U in the RNA, and G in the DNA is complementary to C in the RNA. This RNA molecule will then be used as a template for translation in order to produce a protein.
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02.03 Water Quality Virtual Lab Worksheet
Student Name: Lance Beriault
Time Estimate: 90 minutes
Pre-Activity Questions:
Use information from the lesson and assessment introduction to answer these questions. Use complete sentences.
1. Describe how scientists make inferences on whether water is polluted or not.
2. Imagine that a stream of water becomes heavily polluted over time. Predict how you think the following properties would change:
• pH
• water hardness
• nitrate and ammonia levels
Data: (make sure to include correct units)
Table 1 – Physical Properties
Non-polluted Industrial Runoff Agricultural Runoff Thermal Pollution
Color Clear blue Foggy white Gray Clear
Turbidity High Low Medium medium
Temperature 20.0 C 21.0 C 22.5 C 32.0 C
Table 2 – Chemical Properties
Non-polluted Industrial Runoff Agricultural Runoff Thermal Pollution
pH 7.6 9.0 8.6 6.6
Hardness 100 ppm 400 ppm 800 ppm 200 ppm
Ammonia 0.5 ppm 1 ppm 2 ppm 0.5 ppm
Nitrate 0 ppm 5 ppm 40 ppm 0 ppm
Dissolved Oxygen 6.0 mg/L 5.0 mg/L 4.0 mg/L 4.5 mg/L
Table 3 – Stream Diversity
Non-polluted Industrial Runoff Agricultural Runoff Thermal Pollution
Aquatic worm 1 5 4 2
Stonefly 6 0 0 4
Black fly 1 3 4 2
Caddis fly 3 1 0 2
Lung snail 4 2 1 2
Fingernail clam 4 1 0 1
Gill snail 6 0 0 1
Crayfish 3 0 0 1
Carp 3 1 1 2
Trout 3 0 1 0
Total Organisms 34 13 11 17
Analysis:
Review your data carefully to make inferences about pollution. Answer these questions in complete sentences.
1. Identify the pollution type that caused the most change in stream diversity.
2. Which pollution type caused the greatest change in pH? Did this pollution make the water more acidic or more basic?
3. What effect did thermal pollution have on water hardness? Explain why this occurred.
4. Which pollution type shows evidence of eutrophication. Explain your reasoning.
5. Which pollution type resulted in the most hypoxic waters? Support this with evidence from your data. The pollution type resulted in the most hypoxic waters would be Agricultural runoff, caused by excessive nutrients.
6. Which aquatic species were not able to tolerate any of the pollution types in the stream? Trout was the only aquatic species that was not able to tolerate any of the pollution types in the stream.
Making Connections:
Use the lesson content and the results of your lab activity to answer the questions below in complete sentences.
1. Were the pollution sources in the water quality lab point sources or nonpoint sources? Explain your reasoning.
2. Using what you know about macroinvertebrates, explain why some species increased while others decreased.
3. Read both questions below. Answer either one of your choice.
a. What effects, besides death, would you expect to see in aquatic species exposed to thermal pollution?
b. Pick one of the pollution types in the simulation. How would this pollutant affect human health?
4. Describe how a pollutant dissolved in surface water can enter an aquifer. Be sure to include the water cycle's and groundwater's roles in this pollution.
Scientists make inferences on whether water is polluted or not by looking at aquatic species, and pH.
What is water pollution?MIxing of unwanted toxic substances in the water is called water pollution. Agricultural runoff caused the most change in stream diversity. Industrial pollution caused the greatest change in pH, it make the water more basic.
Thermal pollution increases water hardness because of increasing temperature, and mineral dissolves. Agricultural pollution shows evidence of eutrophication because of high nitrate levels. High level of nitrogen and phosphorus causes eutrophication which makes the water hypoxic.
Trout are the only aquatic species that are not able to tolerate any type of pollution in the stream. Pollution adversely affects human health and causes many types of diseases.
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He looked for living S bacterial cells in each of the three batches that
contained living R cells. How did Avery's experiment determine that proteins
do not transfer heritable information?
OA. The samples with destroyed RNA still produced living S strain
bacteria.
OB. The sample with destroyed proteins still produced living S strain
bacteria.
O C. Samples with intact proteins produced no living S strain bacteria.
OD. When DNA was destroyed, living S strain bacteria appeared in the
sampl
SUBMIT
When DNA was destroyed living S strain bacteria appeared in the sample.
What was the result of Avery's experiment?Oswald Avery's team demonstrated that DNA was the "transforming principle" in a very straightforward experiment. DNA was able to change another strain of bacteria when it was extracted from one strain and impart traits to the other strain.DNA makes up the genetic makeup of plasmids and bacteria. DNA or RNA serves as the genetic code for bacterial viruses, often known as phages or bacteria ophages. The replication and expression of genetic material are its two primary uses.For instance, although eukaryotes (multicellular organisms including yeasts) have three different forms of RNA polymerase, bacteria only have one type.To learn more about strain bacteria refer to:
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Answer:
Explanation:
what do black holes convert into gravity waves when they collide
- rational velocity
light
momentum
dark matter
Momentum is converted into gravity waves when they collide. In this case, Option C is correct
How do gravitational waves originate from black holes?
This happens because the two merging black holes are so massive that there are gravitational waves that emanate from the collision and ripple space-time. Gravitational waves are created when black holes transform their momentum. They spiral inward as their angular momentum decreases until they actually collide. Nothing can escape a black hole, so what should be one of the universe's most energetic explosions is completely silent and dark
Additionally, as the two black holes move in opposition, gravitational waves are produced.
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