Mr. Ortiz is a driving instructor. Of his students, 23 have taken the driver's test and 17 of them have passed
on the first attempt. Mr. Ortiz earns a $300 bonus if 80% of his students pass the test on the first attempt.
How many consecutive students must pass on the first attempt in order for Mr. Ortiz to earn the bonus

Answer:

variance = 1.66 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

It is given that,

The standard deviation from the National Health and Nutrition Survey is 1.29 hours.

We need to find the variance. We know that the relationship between the variance and the standard deviation is given by :

[tex]\text{Variance }=\text{standard deviation}^2\\\\\text{Putting all the values, we get :}\\\\\text{Variance }=(1.29)^2\\\\\text{Variance }=1.664\ \text{hours}[/tex]

or

Variance = 1.66

So, the variance is 1.66 hours.

Answer:

1)    

FLAW                         TYPE2         NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1                         0.015           0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW        0.01             0.95

2) 0.04 and $0.04

3) 0.025 and $0.025

4) 0.015 and $0.015

5) 0.95 and $0.95

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that;

financial cost = $1

p(flaw) = 0.05  

p(type 1 flaw / flaw) = 80% = 0.8

p(type 2 flaw / flaw) = 50% = 0.5

p( type 1 and 2 flaw/flaw) = 30% = 0.30

1) Bivariate Table

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw)  = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) =  p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

p( only 1 flow) = 0.04 - 0.015 = 0.025

p( only 2 flow) =  0.025 - 0.015 = 0.01

THEREFORE  the Bivariate Table;

FLAW                         TYPE2         NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1                         0.015           0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW       0.01              0.95

2) probability and expectations of type 1 flaw?

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.04 = $0.04

3)  probability and expectation of Type 2 flaw

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw)  = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.025 = $0.025

4) probability and expectations of Type 1 and 2 flaws

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) =  p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 * 0.015 = $0.015

5) probability and expectations of no flaws?

Probability of no flaw = P(No flaw) =95% =  0.95

Expected financial cost saved the firm per good due to no flaw

= $1 × 0.95 = $0.95

Answer:

The total cost will be 2 adult ($16), and 4 children ($8)

Answer:

62.67%

Step-by-step explanation:

Total revenue of a company from music sales is 14.2 billion dollars in 1999.

It reaches 5.3 million in 2014.

We need to find the percent decrease in music revenue. It can be given by :

[tex]\%=\dfrac{|\text{original value-decrement value}|}{\text{original value}}\times 100\\\\\%=\dfrac{|14.2-5.3|}{14.2}\times 100\\\\\%=62.67[/tex]

So, the percent decrease in music revenue is 62.67%.

Answer:

x = 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Write equation

[tex]\frac{4}{x}=\frac{3x+2}{x^2}[/tex]

Step 2: Solve for x

Step 3: Check

Plug in x to verify it's a solution.

Answer:

-257

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Find values of a and b that make both equalities true:

a/b = 2/5 and 22/a = 11/6 .

given that 22/a=11/16

cross multiply

11a=22x16

11a=352

a=352/11

a=32

put a=32 in  a/b = 2/5 to find b we have

32/b=2/5

cross multiply we have

2b=32x5

2b=160

divide both sides by 2 we have

b=160/2

b=80

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

First, we will start by solving: 22/a = 11/6

Solving for a

We can first cross multiply and we get this: 22 x 6 = 11a, Simplified it would be 132 = 11a. Now we know that a = 12.

Solving for b

Now knowing a = 12 we can get this. 12/b = 2/5 same thing, cross multiply. That would be: 12 x 5 = b x 2, Simplified: 60 = 2b so b = 30

Answer:

3rd and 4th one.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answers:

4) 1:1.5

5) 1.5:7

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation: Second one but I'm not sure so wait till someone else answers if they don't then just guess or pick the second one but if it's wrong I'm extremely sorry .!

Answer:

option forth is mistake:

<DEB and <CBE are not corresponding angle. they are co interior angle.

Answer: Yes

These numbers are a proportion. Let me show an example:

Jenna reads 93 pages of a book in 15 pages. How many pages does she read in 10 minutes?

93 ÷ 15 = 6.2

6.2 x 10 = 62

Answer: She reads 62 pages in 10 minutes.

These numbers can show a proportion like the example listed.

Hope this helps you!

Answer: yeah, sure

93 divided by 15 = 6.2

6.2 x 10 = 62

Answer:

1440 days

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

I dont think you can, Pretty sure u can only search for answers. I would double check though

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:its d

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

I think that answer is C i believe

Answer:

[tex]this \: probability \: is \: \frac{8}{10} = \frac{4}{5} [/tex]

Answer:

B. 4/5

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps :3

if it did pls mark brainliest

Answer:

A.

(3, -8)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C is the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

The rule is that(x,y)-->(-y,x) so therefore making it c

Answer:

The distance is 62

Step-by-step explanation:

Take the second number and subtract the first number

12 - ( -50)

12 + 50

62

The distance is 62

Answer: 21 net force to the right

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Your right

Answer:my answer is 15,490,000

Step-by-step explanation: cuz that is what rounding does

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

17 686.98

Step-by-step explanation:

$3,497.22 + $2,259.86 + $4,178.40 + $2,863.17+ $4,888.33.

Answer:

$17,686.98

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Chau drove 139 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

Knowing how much Chau spent at the end makes the question much much easier. So what you want to do is take of the base fee ($20.99) off the final amount he had to pay.

$130.80 - $20.99 = $109.81

Now you divide $109.81 by the additional charge ($0.79)

Change the divisor (0.79) to a whole number by moving the decimal point 2 places to the right. Then move the decimal point in the dividend (109.81) the same, 2 places to the right.

We then have the equations:

10981 ÷ 79 = 139.000

and therefore:

109.81 ÷ 0.79 = 139.000

Chau drove 139 miles.

Answer:

4-7

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

wrong its not 4 7

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:c. Using $500 to open a saving account

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

its D. making regular deposits of $100 into a sinking fund.

Step-by-step explanation:

I got it right

Answer:

a. y= -5/2x -4

Step-by-step explanation:

An equation that is perpendicular to another equation must have the opposite slope. In other words, the perpendicular equation will be the opposite sign & the reciprocal of the equation it is perpendicular to. In this case, the perpendicular slope is -5/2x. Therefore, the only answer possible is a.

Answer:

k=45

Step-by-step explanation:

45+2k+k=180

Step 1: Simplify both sides of the equation.

45+2k+k=180

(2k+k)+(45)=180(Combine Like Terms)

3k+45=180

3k+45=180

Step 2: Subtract 45 from both sides.

3k+45−45=180−45

3k=135

Step 3: Divide both sides by 3.

3k/3=135/3

k=45

Answer:

The interquartile range is 60 ⇒ D

Step-by-step explanation:

The interquartile range is the difference between the upper quartile and the lower quartile

Let us explain how to find the interquartile range

Let us do these steps to find it

∵ The data set is {45, 12, 48, 96, 61, 84, 29, 1, 72, 5, 14}

→ Arrange them

∴ The data set is {1, 5, 12, 14, 29, 45, 48, 61, 72, 84, 96}

∵ They are 11 numbers

∴ The middle number is the 6th number (5 before it and 5 after it)

∵ The 6th number is 45

∴ The median is 45

→ Find the lower set (before the median)

∴ The lower set is {1, 5, 12, 14, 29}

→ Find the lower quartile Q1

∵ The lower quartile is the middle number in this set

∵ There are 5 numbers

∴ The middle one is the 3rd

∵ The 3rd is 12

∴ Q1 = 12

→ Find the upper set (after the median)

∴ The upper set is {48, 61, 72, 84, 96}

→ Find the upper quartile Q3

∵ The upper quartile is the middle number in this set

∵ There are 5 numbers

∴ The middle one is the 3rd

∵ The 3rd is 72

∴ Q3 = 72

→ Subtract them to find the interquartile range

∵ The interquartile range = Q3 - Q1

∴ The interquartile range = 72 - 12

∴ The interquartile range = 60