A nurse is an example of a therapeutic service professional. A. True B. False
Answer:
The answer is A) true
Explanation:
I did this on my test and got it right and I looked it up :)
What two exercises could be used to increase your ability to perform push-ups in a fitness evaluation
Answer:
planks and pull ups
Explanation:
Answer:
Planks and Shoulder Press
Explanation:
Upper Body Strength
plz help tyyyyyyyyyyyy
Answer:
7. A, alcoholism
8. B, intoxication
what's your favorite number of the alphabet true or false?
Roberto shows up to a meeting with a pen and paper to take notes. He turns off his cell phone, and he has read his
agenda. The meeting started at 10 a.m. and he showed up at 10:15 a.m. During the meeting, he asked many relevant
questions. How could he become a more effective participant?
O He should not ask questions, as it is distracting.
O He should keep his cell phone on for emergencies.
O He should improve his active listening.
O He should improve his timeliness.
Answer:
D
Explanation:
He came 15 minutes late which is not good because he could get in trouble. He did good by asking questions, turning off his cell phone and by listening but he was late. Being late is not good because he could have missed information that he may have needed.
Kinesiology studies how the body initiates and controls movement, beginning with the brain
and using interactions of different body systems. The body moves when internal and external
forces act on it. Internal forces are generated within the body, while external forces are generated outside of the body.
Internally, muscles generate force as they contract and bones generate movement. Which
statement accurately represents how forces affect motion in organisms?
O When a muscle relaxes, it applies a pulling force on a bone, causing it to move.
O When a bone relaxes, it applies a pushing force on a muscle, causing it to move.
O When a muscle contracts, it applies a pulling force on a bone, which causes movement.
O When a bone contracts, it applies a pushing force on a muscle, which causes movement.
Answer: When a muscle contracts, it applies a pulling force on a bone, which causes movement
Explanation:
The statement that muscle contract is causing application of a pulling force on a bone and that it is causing movement is representing how forces are affecting motion in organisms od the human body.
The process of muscle contract is called contraction. These muscles are attached to bones that are found in the human body and they are attached to them by strong tendons. When it comes to the contraction process, the muscle is pulling on the bone.
Smoking decreases the
amount of oxygen that the blood can carry. How
can this effect increase the chances that a smoker
will develop cardiovascular disease?
Answer:
the lungs will turn black, unable to breath....and will die
Explanation:
A balance uses small metal weights of known mass to determine the mass of a substance. Where would a balance NOT function correctly?
A balance scale.
A.
in a vacuum on Earth
B.
on the Moon's surface
C.
on the Earth's highest mountain
D.
in a zero gravity environment
Answer:
D
Explanation:
just took the test on edge 2020
Our physical state can affect our mental and emotional health.
True or
False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Poor physical health can lead to an increased risk of developing mental health problems. Similarly, poor mental health can negatively impact on physical health, leading to an increased risk of some conditions. Since the founding of the NHS in 1948, physical care and mental health care have largely been disconnected.
If only unattractive like you does that mean you are unattractive
Answer:
no , everyone is beautiful in there own way .. also don't pay attention to looks too much :)
Congenital heart defects
O are present at birth
O result from poor diet
O affect mainly older people
O can be prevented with regular exercise
what is calisthenics essay
Answer:
Calisthenics are exercises that use your bodyweight for resistance and are designed to strengthen and tone your muscles and increase muscular endurance.
Explanation:
I didnt understand the question that much...but hope that helps!
how are food prices affected by a supply and demand
Explanation:
Food prices are affected by supply and demand because when you have more of something it would be cheaper than the less you have of something the more it would cost because there isn't as much as the product
Answer:
They affect the demand in that if the food is too expensive, people might not want to buy it anymore. It can also go the other way; if food prices drop, then the demand might increase due to the lowered prices.
please help
it’s true or false i’m just dumb
i’ll give brainliest
Answer:
No because carbs are your main source of energy with a low carb diet you would gain more weight because you wouldn't have he energy to get rid of any
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Low carbohydrate deit can be effective for weight loss.
_____are types of cells in the blood that causes blood clots to from?
Answer:
white blood cells
Explanation:
Answer:
Platelets
Explanation:
hope this helps
Essay writing
state the important thing you have learned about personal protective equipment.
Relationships are most successful when two people share all the same activities?True or false
Answer:true
Explanation:
just because it is common sense
ason, a 15-year-old, is mowing the grass in his front lawn as his two sisters, Lisa, a 12-year-old, and Chris, a 14-year old, play nearby. As he pushes the mower, some of the grass begins to back up at his mower’s discharge opening. He reaches into the discharge chute to try to brush away a clump of grass, when he rises, he accidentally bumps his sister’s nose. It is not broken, but it is bleeding pretty badly. What do you do?
Answer:Call 911
Explanation:
Humans are
capable of _________
facial expressions.
A. 250,000,000
B. 0 250.000
C. O 25,000
D. O 2.500
Answer:
2500 hope it helps ok
ok
Which of the following is true regarding prenatal tests?
All prenatal tests are safe for the mother and her unborn baby.
Amniocentesis is less risky than the AFP blood test.
Amniocentesis and chorionic villi sampling are the prenatal tests that pose the highest risk to the pregnant woman and her unborn baby.
All prenatal tests are unsafe and should not be performed.
A screening test is a procedure or test that is done to see if a woman or her baby might have certain problems. A screening test does not provide a specific diagnosis—that requires a diagnostic test (see below). A screening test can sometimes give an abnormal result even when there is nothing wrong with the mother or her baby. Less often, a screening test result can be normal and miss a problem that does exist. During pregnancy, women are usually offered these screening tests to check for birth defects or other problems for the woman or her baby. Talk to your doctor about any concerns you have about prenatal testing.
First Trimester Screening
First trimester screening is a combination of tests completed between weeks 11 and 13 of pregnancy. It is used to look for certain birth defects related to the baby’s heart or chromosomal disorders, such as Down syndrome. This screen includes a maternal blood test and an ultrasound.
Maternal Blood Screen
The maternal blood screen is a simple blood test. It measures the levels of two proteins, human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and pregnancy associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). If the protein levels are abnormally high or low, there could be a chromosomal disorder in the baby.
Ultrasound
An ultrasound creates pictures of the baby. The ultrasound for the first trimester screen looks for extra fluid behind the baby’s neck. If there is increased fluid found on the ultrasound, there could be a chromosomal disorder or heart defect in the baby.
Second Trimester Screening
Maternal Serum Screen
The maternal serum screen is a simple blood test used to identify if a woman is at increased risk for having a baby with certain birth defects, such as neural tube defects or chromosomal disorders such as Down syndrome. It is also known as a “triple screen” or “quad screen” depending on the number of proteins measured in the mother’s blood. For example, a quad screen tests the levels of 4 proteins AFP (alpha-fetoprotein), hCG, estriol, and inhibin-A. Generally, the maternal serum screen is completed during the second trimester.
Fetal Echocardiogram
A fetal echocardiogram is a test that uses sound waves to evaluate the baby’s heart for heart defects before birth. This test can provide a more detailed image of the baby’s heart than a regular pregnancy ultrasound. Some heart defects can’t be seen before birth, even with a fetal echocardiogram. If your healthcare provider finds a problem in the structure of the baby’s heart, a detailed ultrasound may be done to look for other problems with the developing baby.
Anomaly Ultrasound
An ultrasound creates pictures of the baby. This test is usually completed around 18–20 weeks of pregnancy. The ultrasound is used to check the size of the baby and looks for birth defects or other problems with the baby.
Diagnostic Tests
If the result of a screening test is abnormal, doctors usually offer further diagnostic tests to determine if birth defects or other possible problems with the baby are present. These diagnostic tests are also offered to women with higher risk pregnancies, which may include women who are 35 years of age or older; women who have had a previous pregnancy affected by a birth defect; women who have chronic diseases such as lupus, high blood pressure, diabetes, or epilepsy; or women who use certain medications.
Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS)
CVS is a test where the doctor collects a tiny piece of the placenta, called chorionic villus, which is then tested to check for chromosomal or genetic disorders in the baby. Generally, a CVS test is offered to women who received an abnormal result on a first trimester screening test or to women who could be at higher risk. It is completed between 10 and 12 weeks of pregnancy, earlier than an amniocentesis.
Amniocentesis
An amniocentesis is test where the doctor collects a small amount of amniotic fluid from the area surrounding the baby. The fluid is then tested to measure the baby’s protein levels, which might indicate certain birth defects. Cells in the amniotic fluid can be tested for chromosomal disorders, such as Down syndrome, and genetic problems, such as cystic fibrosis or Tay-Sachs disease. Generally, an amniocentesis is offered to women who received an abnormal result on a screening test or to women who might be at higher risk. It is completed between 15 and 18 weeks of pregnancy. Below are some of the proteins for which an amniocentesis tests.
AFP
AFP stands for alpha-fetoprotein, a protein the unborn baby produces. A high level of AFP in the amniotic fluid might mean that the baby has a defect indicating an opening in the tissue, such as a neural tube defect (anencephaly or spina bifida), or a body wall defect, such as omphalocele or gastroschisis.
reached.
25 PTS Tobacco is the leading cause of _____.
lung cancer
cirrhosis
brain damage
stomach ulcers
Answer:
hi
Explanation:
hi
Why are models in science used to represent complex processes?
“Scientific models are often used in laboratories to represent Earth's processes. While field tests and observations are vital, physical, digital, and mathematical models are useful tools in the laboratory. Models provide insight into complex processes that might otherwise be difficult to grasp”
Do you think that certain farm practices can relieve stress. If yes State how and the practices, If NO explain your view.
Which is NOT a reason STDs go undiagnosed?
a. State laws require all STDs to be reported.
b. Many STDs are asymptomatic.
c. If symptoms disappear, a person might think the STD is gone.
d. Some people are embarrassed to ask for help.
please help
Answer:
the answer is a
Explanation:
stds do not have to be reported to the govt
A reason that STDs go undiagnosed is that state laws require all STDs to be reported, which is option a. State laws requiring the reporting of STDs actually help in their diagnosis and tracking. So, the correct option is option a.
Many STDs do not cause noticeable symptoms or may only cause mild symptoms that can be easily overlooked or mistaken for other conditions. As a result, individuals may not seek medical attention or testing, assuming they are not infected. Some STDs, such as chlamydia or gonorrhea, can cause symptoms that resolve on their own, leading individuals to believe the infection has cleared without treatment. The stigma surrounding STDs and discussions about sexual health can prevent some individuals from seeking medical attention or discussing their concerns openly with healthcare providers. So, the correct option is option a.
Learn more about STDs here.
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#SPJ6
The Pacers test measures....
Answer:
You're endurance.
Explanation:
And also how well you can handle embarrassment for not completing more laps than the fat child.
Which process forms new elements
Answer:
**nuclear fusion**
So creating a brand new element requires loading an atom's nucleus with more protons. Stars create new elements in their cores by squeezing elements together in a process called nuclear fusion. First, stars fuse hydrogen atoms into helium.
HELLO PLZ HELP GUYS.
Answer:
It creates energy when released
Answer:
Weight Gain
Explanation:
Glucose is used instead to create fatty acids that are converted into lipoproteins and released into the bloodstream. These break down into free fatty acids and are used in other tissues. Some tissues use these to create triglycerides.
(............)is the body's ability to increase work capacity across different lengths of time, load and types of movement.
it is
A. cardiovascular
or B. fitness
Answer: The answer is fitness
Explanation:
The body's ability to increase work capacity across different lengths of time, load, and types of movement - B. fitness
FitnessIt is the condition of being physically fit and healthy.
It involves attributes that include mental acuity, cardiorespiratory endurance, muscular strength, muscular endurance, body composition, and flexibility.Fitness is the ability of an individual to improve all the attributes by increasing the overall capacity of work across various lengths of timeit can increase in various ways including a healthy diet, physical exercise, and many other mental and physical aspects.Thus, The body's ability to increase work capacity across different lengths of time, load, and types of movement - B. fitness
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Select the correct answer.
The World Health Organization defines health as a balance of physical, mental, and
well-being.
Ο Α. .
Social
OB
Consumer
OC.
Financial
OD.
Environmental
Reset
Reset
Next
Answer:
The answer is social. So A
Which learning theory involves the concept of successive approximation?
A.
conditioning and social learning
B.
social learning
C.
classical conditioning
D.
operant conditioning
The successive approximation is a technique used to promote learning by psychologist B. F. Skinner, in operant conditioning.
What is successive approximation?It is a learning paradigm that is part of operant conditioning, in the context of applied behavior analysis, which was developed by Burrhus Frederick Skinner.
Behavioral shaping is normally carried out through the method of procedures that are based on the progressive modification of an existing response in the behavioral repertoire of the learner.
Therefore, we can conclude that successive approximation is one of the operant techniques used to develop behaviors.
Learn more about successive approximation here: https://brainly.com/question/26741464
Answer:
"operant conditioning"
Explanation:
Plato Answer