Adams Corporation estimates that it lost $74,400 in inventory from a recent flood. The following information is available from the records of the company’s periodic inventory system: beginning inventory, $180,000; purchases and net sales from the beginning of the year through the date of the flood, $420,000 and $730,000, respectively.
What is the company’s gross profit ratio?

Answers

Answer 1

The company's gross profit ratio is approximately 0.898, or 89.8%. To calculate the gross profit ratio for Adams Corporation, we first need to find the gross profit and then divide it by net sales.

Here's how to do that using the provided information:

1. Calculate the cost of goods sold (COGS): Beginning inventory + Purchases - Ending inventory
  Ending inventory = Beginning inventory + Purchases - Flood loss
  Ending inventory = $180,000 + $420,000 - $74,400 = $525,600

2. Calculate the cost of goods sold (COGS):
  COGS = Beginning inventory + Purchases - Ending inventory
  COGS = $180,000 + $420,000 - $525,600 = $74,400

3. Calculate the gross profit: Net sales - COGS
  Gross profit = $730,000 - $74,400 = $655,600

4. Calculate the gross profit ratio: Gross profit / Net sales
  Gross profit ratio = $655,600 / $730,000 = 0.898

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Related Questions

From the following list, select all of the factors that have made global pricing more transparent and, in many cases, more competitive in recent times.
* Technological advancements
* Increased Internet access

Answers

One factor that has made global pricing more transparent and competitive in recent times is increased internet access. With the internet, consumers can easily compare prices from different sellers around the world, making it easier for them to find the best deals.

Additionally, the rise of e-commerce platforms and online marketplaces has made it easier for sellers to reach a global audience, leading to increased competition and lower prices.

Social media and other online marketing channels have also made it easier for businesses to promote their products and services, leading to increased visibility and competition.

Finally, the availability of data and analytics tools has made it easier for businesses to track and analyze pricing trends, enabling them to make more informed decisions about pricing and compete more effectively in the global marketplace.

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the crash testing department of hyundai tests new vehicle models for safety before they go into mass production. which of the following would be the most appropriate cost driver for this department?

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The most appropriate cost driver for the crash testing department of Hyundai would be option b) the number of new vehicle models being tested for safety before they go into mass production.


This is because the number of vehicle models being tested for safety performed directly correlates with the department's expenses, as each test requires resources, equipment, and personnel to execute. Therefore, using the  option b. as the cost driver helps allocate the department's costs more accurately and reflects the department's activities. All other options will not be the responsibility of crash testing department but the manufacturing unit.

The options are:

a) the number of crash tests performed.

b) number of new vehicle models being tested for safety before they go into mass production.

c) number of machine hours used in manufacturing

d) number and cost of production setups

Therefore, the correct option is b) number of new vehicle models being tested for safety before they go into mass production.

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which of the following procedures would an auditor most likely perform for year-end accounts receivable confirmations when the auditor did not receive replies to second requests? review the cash receipts journal for the month prior to year end. inspect the shipping records documenting the merchandise sold to the customers. increase the assessed level of detection risk for the existence assertion. intensify the study of internal control concerning the revenue cycle.

Answers

When an auditor does not receive replies to second requests for year-end accounts receivable confirmations, the auditor would most likely increase the assessed level of detection risk for the existence assertion.

This means that the auditor would accept a higher risk of material misstatement in the accounts receivable balance, and would likely perform additional audit procedures to obtain sufficient evidence.

The auditor may also intensify the study of internal control concerning the revenue cycle to identify potential weaknesses that may have contributed to the lack of responses to the confirmation requests.

Reviewing the cash receipts journal or inspecting shipping records may be relevant procedures in other circumstances, but would not be the most likely response in this scenario.

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A negative externality:
A.
is not as costly as a positive externality.
B.
is a cost that individuals or firms impose on others without having to offer compensation.
C.
is immune to economic incentives.
D.
is an unavoidable consequence of budget deficits.
E.
cannot be fixed by market forces.

Answers

B. A negative externality is a cost that individuals or firms impose on others without having to offer compensation. This means that the cost of the negative externality is not being fully accounted for by the individual or firm that is causing it, and is instead being passed on to others.

Examples of negative externalities include pollution from factories, noise from construction sites, and second-hand smoke from cigarettes. These negative externalities can have a variety of impacts on society, including health problems, reduced property values, and decreased quality of life.

It is important to note that negative externalities cannot be fixed by market forces alone. In fact, they often require government intervention to address them. For example, the government may impose regulations on polluting industries or create taxes on products that generate negative externalities. By internalizing the costs of negative externalities, individuals and firms are incentivized to reduce their impact on society and ultimately improve overall well-being.

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Rose Company sells equipment to Foster Company. The manufacturer's suggested retail price of the equipment is $14,475, the marked price is $13,995, and Foster purchases the equipment for $13,650. The seller also paid $240 in shipping charges on behalf of the buyer and included it on the invoice. Using the historical-cost principle, at which amount will Foster report the equipment on its balance sheet: O $14,235 O $14,475 O $13,995 O $13,890 Save for Later Submit Answer

Answers

Foster Company will report the equipment on its balance sheet at $13,890.

Foster Company purchased equipment from Rose Company:

Foster Company purchased equipment from Rose Company with the following information:

- Manufacturer's suggested retail price: $14,475
- Marked price: $13,995
- Purchase price: $13,650
- Shipping charges paid by the seller (included on the invoice): $240

Using the historical-cost principle, Foster Company will report the equipment on its balance sheet by including both the purchase price and the shipping charges. To calculate the total cost, add the purchase price and the shipping charges:

$13,650 (purchase price) + $240 (shipping charges) = $13,890

Therefore, Foster Company will report the equipment on its balance sheet at $13,890.

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when preparing a segment margin income statement: multiple select question. traceable fixed expenses are deducted from contribution margin. cost of goods sold consists of only variable manufacturing costs. common fixed expenses are excluded from the statement.

Answers

When preparing a segment margin income statement, you should deduct traceable fixed expenses from the contribution margin, include only variable manufacturing costs in the cost of goods sold, and exclude common fixed expenses from the statement.

When preparing a segment margin income statement, the following statements are accurate:
1. Traceable fixed expenses are deducted from the contribution margin: This means that fixed expenses that can be directly attributed to a specific segment are subtracted from the segment's contribution margin (sales minus variable costs) to arrive at the segment margin.

2. Cost of goods sold consists of only variable manufacturing costs: In this type of statement, the cost of goods sold (COGS) only includes variable manufacturing costs associated with producing the goods, which allows for a clearer understanding of the segment's performance.

3. Common fixed expenses are excluded from the statement: Common fixed expenses that cannot be traced to a specific segment are not included in the segment margin income statement, as they do not directly impact the segment's performance.

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How long the Sprint Planning takes in a project with three-week Sprints?

Answers

In a project with three-week Sprints, the Sprint Planning process typically takes around four to eight hours, depending on the size and complexity of the project. During this time, the development team and the product owner come together to plan out the next Sprint, defining the objectives, goals, and tasks that need to be completed.

The first part of the Sprint Planning involves the product owner presenting the prioritized backlog to the development team. The team then reviews the items and asks any questions they may have to clarify the requirements. Next, the team discusses and selects the items they will commit to completing during the upcoming Sprint. Once the team has decided on the work to be done, they break the items down into smaller tasks and estimate how much time each task will take.

The second part of the Sprint Planning is focused on creating a plan for how the team will achieve the Sprint goal. The team collaborates to create a detailed plan for how they will complete the selected items and work towards the Sprint goal. This plan includes identifying dependencies, setting timelines and deadlines, and assigning tasks to specific team members. Overall, the Sprint Planning process is crucial for ensuring that the development team is aligned with the product owner's vision, and that everyone is on the same page regarding the work to be done during the next Sprint. By taking the time to plan effectively, the team can increase their chances of delivering high-quality work on time and within budget.

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9. Depository financial institutions include commercial banks, thrift institutions, and credit unions.

Answers

Depository financial institutions refer to institutions that primarily accept deposits from customers and use these deposits to provide loans and other financial services. This category of financial institutions includes commercial banks, thrift institutions, and credit unions.

Commercial banks are the most common type of depository financial institution. They provide a range of financial services such as checking and savings accounts, loans, and credit cards. These banks also offer investment services, insurance, and financial planning. Thrift institutions are another type of depository financial institution. They are typically smaller than commercial banks and specialize in providing savings and loan products. Thrift institutions include savings and loan associations and mutual savings banks. Credit unions are member-owned financial cooperatives that offer many of the same services as commercial banks and thrift institutions. They are not-for-profit organizations, and their primary goal is to provide financial services to their members at competitive rates. In summary, depository financial institutions play a vital role in the economy by providing a safe place for individuals and businesses to deposit their money and access credit. Commercial banks, thrift institutions, and credit unions all fall under this category, and each has its unique characteristics and services.

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If the sole proprietor dies, is incapacitated or retires, the business no longer exists. This disadvantage of a sole proprietorship is called _______ life span

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The disadvantage of a sole proprietorship where the business ceases to exist upon the death, incapacity, or retirement of the owner is called "limited life span."


Limited life span is a characteristic of a business structure that limits its duration. It refers to the time frame during which a business can exist and operate. In the case of a sole proprietorship, the business's life span is tied to the owner's life span or ability to operate the business. Therefore, if the owner dies, becomes incapacitated, or retires, the business ceases to exist. This can be a significant disadvantage of a sole proprietorship because it can impact the continuity of the business and the ability to pass it on to heirs or sell it to someone else.

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45. In the percent-of-sales method, a decrease in dividends:
A. will increase required new funds.
B. will decrease required new funds.
C. has no effect on required new funds.
D. more information is needed.

Answers

The answer to the question is B: In the percent-of-sales method, dividends are calculated as a percentage of net sales. Therefore, a decrease in dividends means that the company will be retaining more earnings instead of paying them out to shareholders. This, in turn, means that the company will have more funds available to finance its operations and growth.

A decrease in dividends will decrease the required new funds. This is because the company will be able to use more of its retained earnings to fund its operations and growth instead of relying on external financing.

It is important to note, however, that the percent-of-sales method is just one of many methods used to forecast a company's financial needs. Other factors, such as changes in the company's capital structure or growth plans, may also impact the number of new funds required. Therefore, it is always important to consider multiple factors when making financial projections and decisions.

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A C corporation made a nonliquidating distribution of $25,000 and personal property with a fair value of $10,000 and an adjusted basis of $4,000 to its sole shareholder. The personal property was encumbered by a $12,000 note payable at the time of the distribution, which was assumed by the shareholder. The corporation has sufficient earnings and profits. What amount of gain is reported by the corporation as the result of making the distribution?

Answers

The corporation will recognize a gain equal to the lesser of the amount of the distribution or the corporation's current and accumulated E&P. The corporation will report a gain of $23,000 as a result of making the distribution.

In this case, the distribution is $25,000 + $10,000 = $35,000. The adjusted basis of the personal property is $4,000, so the corporation has a built-in gain of $10,000 - $4,000 = $6,000 on the personal property.

However, the personal property was encumbered by a $12,000 note payable, which was assumed by the shareholder. This means that the shareholder took on the liability for the note and reduced the corporation's liability by the same amount. As a result, the distribution is effectively reduced by the amount of the liability assumed by the shareholder, and the gain recognized by the corporation is reduced by the same amount.

The gain recognized by the corporation is the lesser of the distribution ($35,000) or the corporation's E&P. Since the corporation has sufficient E&P, the gain recognized is $35,000 - $12,000 (liability assumed by the shareholder) = $23,000.

Therefore, the corporation will report a gain of $23,000 as a result of making the distribution.

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The purposes of organizational values include: (Select all that apply)
A. Link to the mission of the organization
B. Serve as internal values of decision making
C. Guide relationships with stakeholders
D. Serve as a foundation for the GVV methodology
E. Set the tone for the organization

Answers

The purposes of organizational values are many, and they play a critical role in shaping the culture, operations, and decision-making processes of any organization. Here are the key purposes that organizational values serve:

Firstly, organizational values serve as a link to the mission of the organization. The mission statement outlines the organization's core purpose and goals, and the values provide a framework for achieving those goals. By aligning values with the mission, organizations can ensure that everyone is working towards a common goal.

Secondly, organizational values serve as internal values of decision making. Values provide guidelines for making decisions, and they help employees understand what is important to the organization. By aligning decisions with values, organizations can ensure that they are acting ethically and with integrity.

Thirdly, organizational values guide relationships with stakeholders. Values provide a foundation for building trust and respect with stakeholders such as customers, employees, partners, and communities. By aligning relationships with values, organizations can build long-lasting partnerships and create a positive impact on society.

Fourthly, organizational values serve as a foundation for the GVV (Giving Voice to Values) methodology. This methodology provides a framework for addressing ethical dilemmas and aligning actions with values. By using this methodology, organizations can ensure that their values are upheld in all situations.

Finally, organizational values set the tone for the organization. They shape the culture, behaviors, and attitudes of employees, and they create a sense of purpose and belonging. By promoting a positive and values-driven culture, organizations can attract and retain top talent and create a competitive advantage.

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If Silvia receives a pay cut and the income effect outweighs the price effect on her labor supply decision, she will:

Multiple Choice

work more hours.

work the same hours no matter what.

work less hours.

quit and not work at all

Answers

If Silvia receives a pay cut and the income effect outweighs the price effect on her labor supply decision, she will work less hours

If Silvia's pay declines and this influences her employment decision more than the rise in labour expenses, she will:

Work the same amount of hours as before, more hours than before, the same amount of hours as before, or none at all.

If Silvia's compensation decreases, she will therefore work fewer hours than she did previously, and this fall in her willingness to work will outweigh any other variables that would motivate her to work harder.

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Wacky Wendy produces gourmet cheese in Wisconsin. Wendy has sales as follows:
Wendy's Sales: State Sales Iowa $ 350,512 Michigan $ 134,589 Minnesota $ 849,142 Wisconsin $ 1,323,032 Totals $ 2,657,275 Wendy is a Wisconsin Corporation and has the following operations:
Wendy has income tax nexus in Iowa, Minnesota, and Wisconsin. The Michigan sales are shipped from Wisconsin (a throwback state). $100,000 of the Wisconsin sales were to the federal government. What is Wendy's Wisconsin sale numerator?
Multiple Choice
$1,223,032
$1,323,032
$1,457,621
$1,357,621

Answers

The Wisconsin sale numerator refers to the number of sales made by a corporation in the state of Wisconsin for tax purposes.  The answer to the question is (B) $1,323,032

In this scenario, Wacky Wendy, a Wisconsin-based corporation, has sales in multiple states and to the federal government. However, only sales made within the state of Wisconsin are included in the Wisconsin sale numerator.

Looking at Wendy's sales data, we can see that the total sales amount is $2,657,275. However, only $1,323,032 of those sales were made within Wisconsin, while the remaining sales were made to other states and the federal government.

It is also mentioned that Wendy has income tax nexus in Iowa, Minnesota, and Wisconsin, but not in Michigan. Therefore, sales made to Michigan are not included in the Wisconsin sale numerator. However, the sales made to the federal government are included in the numerator since the federal government is not a state and does not have its own sale numerator.

So, the answer to the question is (B) $1,323,032, which represents the total sales made by Wendy's in Wisconsin. It is important to calculate the Wisconsin sale numerator accurately as it is used to calculate the corporation's Wisconsin income tax liability.

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Which of the following are among the factors that must be considered in order to estimate the total compensation associated with stock options
O expected dividends on the underlying stock
O expected volatility of the stock price
O expected risk-free rate of return during the option termO stock options are granted

Answers

It is essential to consider all of these factors when estimating the total compensation associated with stock options, as they can significantly impact their value.

When estimating the total compensation associated with stock options, several factors must be taken into consideration. These include the expected dividends on the underlying stock, the expected volatility of the stock price, and the expected risk-free rate of return during the option term. Expected dividends on the underlying stock are important because they affect the price of the stock, which in turn affects the value of the stock options. If the underlying stock pays high dividends, the stock price may be lower, which could decrease the value of the stock options. Expected volatility of the stock price is also a crucial factor, as it affects the probability that the stock price will rise above the exercise price of the options. Higher volatility increases the likelihood of a larger payoff, which can increase the value of the options. Finally, the expected risk-free rate of return during the option term is important because it affects the opportunity cost of holding the options. If the risk-free rate of return is high, the cost of holding the options is also high, which can decrease their value.

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(Algo) Lessee; lessee guaranteed residual value [LO15-2, 15-6]On January 1, 2021, Maywood Hydraulics leased drilling equipment from Aqua Leasing for a four-year period ending December 31, 2024, at which time possession of the leased asset will revert back to Aqua. The equipment cost Aqua $427,906 and has an expected economic life of five years. Aqua expects the residual value at December 31, 2024, to be $64,000. Negotiations led to Maywood guaranteeing a $91,000 residual value.Equal payments under the lease are $128,000 and are due on December 31 of each year with the first payment being made on December 31, 2021. Maywood is aware that Aqua used a 5% interest rate when calculating lease payments. (FV of $1, PV of $1, FVA of $1, PVA of $1, FVAD of $1 and PVAD of $1) (Use appropriate factor(s) from the tables provided.)Required:1. & 2. Prepare the appropriate entries for Maywood on January 1, 2021 and December 31, 2021, related to the lease. (If no entry is required for a transaction/event, select "No journal entry required" in the first account field. Round your final answers to the nearest whole dollar.)

Answers

Maywood Hydraulics leased drilling equipment from present value Aqua Leasing for a four-year period ending December 31, 2024, at which time possession of the leased asset

Equal payments under the lease are $128,000 and are due on December 31 of each year with the first payment being made on December 31, 2021. Maywood is aware that Aqua used a 5% interest rate when calculating lease payments.

The sum to be added to the right-of-use asset is $1,434.33 based on the sum Ramirez guaranteed the lessor and the expected residual value. The equipment cost Aqua $427,906 and has an expected economic life of five years. Aqua expects the residual value at December 31, 2024, to be $64,000 more should the right-of-use asset be given.

This would be the difference between the guaranteed sum and the estimated residual value, expressed in present value. = 42,300 - 40,200 = $2,100

Amount in the present: =2,100/ (1 + 10%)* =1,434.328 = $1,434.33. In conclusion, $1,434.33 must be added to the right-of-use asset amount.

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Sally is a partner of a small clothing company. This week she has been hosting a group of potential investors. Several of the potential investors have asked about the company’s newest technology and ability to sell clothing online. If these potential investors decide to invest in her company it could mean enormous growth, however she is being asked to divulge some specific information about the company that she and her partner decided would not be discussed. She is now faced with a (n) ________ issue

Answers

Sally is facing an ethical issue, specifically a dilemma of confidentiality.

She has to decide whether to disclose sensitive information about her company to potential investors in order to secure their investment, or to honor her obligation to keep that information confidential. As a partner of a small clothing company, she and her partner had already decided not to discuss certain information with potential investors. If she discloses this information, it could have long-term consequences for her company and its employees.

If she doesn't disclose it, she may lose out on the opportunity to secure investment that could take her company to the next level. Sally will need to consider the potential impact of both options, and weigh the benefits and risks before making a decision that aligns with her values and the best interests of her company.

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9 Bausch Company is presented with the following two mutually exclusive projects. The required return for both projects is 16 percent. 15 points Skipped Year 0 1 2 3 4 Project M -$136,000 63,900 81,90 0 184,000 3 72,900 135,500 4 58,900 114,000 a. What is the IRR for each project? (Do not round intermediate calculations and enter your answers as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.) b. What is the NPV for each project? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answers to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.) c. Which, if either, of the projects should the company accept? % a. Project M Project N b. Project M Project N c. Accept project Project M

Answers

Project M's IRR is 18.10%, whereas Project N's IRR is 17.31%. Project M's NPV is $16,690.60, whereas Project N's is $13,539.17. The corporation should approve Project M because it has a better NPV and IRR than Project N, according to the estimates.


a. To calculate the IRR for each project, you need to find the discount rate at which the NPV becomes zero. For Project M and Project N, you can use trial and error or financial calculator functions.

The IRR for Project M is 18.10% and the IRR for Project N is 17.31%.

b. To calculate the NPV for each project, you need to discount the cash flows for each year by the required return (16%). The formula for NPV is:

NPV = Σ (Cash Flow / (1 + Required Return)^Year) - Initial Investment

Project M:
NPV = (63,900 / (1 + 0.16)¹) + (81,900 / (1 + 0.16)²) + (184,000 / (1 + 0.16)³) + (72,900 / (1 + 0.16)⁴) - 136,000

Project N:
NPV = (135,500 / (1 + 0.16)¹) + (58,900 / (1 + 0.16)²) + (114,000 / (1 + 0.16)³) - 136,000

After calculating the NPV for each project, compare the values.
The NPV for Project M is $16,690.60 and the NPV for Project N is $13,539.17.


c. The company should accept the project with the higher NPV if it is positive, as it provides a better return on investment. If both NPVs are negative, the company should not accept either project, as they would result in a loss.

The company should accept Project M as it has a higher NPV and IRR compared to Project N.

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1 The police are investigating our CEO for allegedly receiving ......

Answers

The police are investigating your CEO for allegedly receiving something that is currently unknown. It is important to note that at this point, the allegations have not been confirmed and the investigation is ongoing.

Without further information, it is difficult to provide a more detailed explanation of the situation. However, it is important to allow the investigation to proceed and for any evidence to be properly evaluated before jumping to conclusions.

While it is concerning that your CEO is under investigation, it is important to await further information and to not make any assumptions without evidence. It is also crucial to cooperate fully with the authorities and to maintain transparency throughout the process.

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154. Career plateauing can be defined as a linear career progression without any levelling or downward movement. True False

Answers

False Career plateauing is a situation where employees experience a lack of upward mobility or opportunities for growth, leading to a feeling of stagnation.

It does not necessarily involve a linear career progression without any levelling or downward movement.

False. Career plateauing can be defined as a situation in which an employee experiences a lack of upward career mobility or opportunities for growth, leading to a feeling of stagnation or lack of progress in their career. It can involve a lack of challenging assignments, limited opportunities for promotion or advancement, or a lack of access to training and development programs. It is not necessarily a linear career progression without any levelling or downward movement.

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Even though some digital media at work will be similar to what you use personally, employers will have different expectations about
A) collaboration.
B) writing style.
C) cloud computing.
D) podcasting
E) video use.

Answers

Writing style.While some digital media tools and technologies used at work may be similar to those used personally, employers may have different expectations when it comes to writing style.

In a professional setting, it's important to maintain a level of formality and professionalism in written communication, such as emails, reports, and other business documents. This means using proper grammar and spelling, avoiding casual language or slang, and being mindful of tone and style.

Additionally, employers may have specific guidelines or policies related to the use of digital media tools and technologies, including collaboration tools, cloud computing, podcasting, and video use. These guidelines may cover issues such as data security, privacy, and appropriate use of company resources. It's important to be aware of these guidelines and to follow them in order to maintain a productive and professional workplace environment.

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match each of the following definition with its terms. Definitions a. Reductions in amount owed by customers because of deficiency in products or services. b. Formal credit arrangements evidenced by a written debt instrument. c. Amount of cash owed to the company by customers from the sale of products or services on account. d. Recording bad debt expense at the time the account is known to be uncollectible. e. Sales on account to customers. f. Reductions in amount owed by customers if payment on account is made within a specified period of time. g. Total revenues less discounts, returns, and allowances. h. Recording an adjustment at the end of each period for the estimate of future uncollectible accounts. i. Estimated percentage of uncollectible accounts is greater for "old" accounts than for "new" accounts. Terms _____ 1. Accounts receivable _____ 2. Credit sales _____ 3. Sales allowances _____ 4. Allowance method _____ 5. Notes receivable _____ 6. Direct write-off method _____ 7. Net revenues _____ 8. Sales discounts _____ 9. Agingmethod

Answers

The answers are Sales allowances,Notes receivable ,Accounts receivable ,  Direct write-off method,Allowance method, Aging method .

Reductions in amount owed by customers because of deficiency in products or services - Sales allowances (Term 3)

`Formal credit arrangements evidenced by a written debt instrument - Notes receivable (Term 5)Amount of cash owed to the company by customers from the sale of products or services on account - Accounts receivable (Term 1)

Recording bad debt expense at the time the account is known to be uncollectible - Direct write-off method (Term 6) Sales on account to customers - Credit sales (Term 2)

Reductions in amount owed by customers if payment on account is made within a specified period of time - Sales discounts (Term 8) Total revenues less discounts, returns, and allowances - Net revenues (Term 7)

Recording an adjustment at the end of each period for the estimate of future uncollectible accounts - Allowance method (Term 4) Estimated percentage of uncollectible accounts is greater for "old" accounts than for "new" accounts - Aging method (Term 9)


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which of the following statements best describes the trend in the graph? responses the chinese gdp has consistently declined since 2007. the chinese gdp has consistently declined since 2007. the chinese gdp has been shrinking since 2005, scaring investors away. the chinese gdp has been shrinking since 2005, scaring investors away. the chinese gdp has seen growth since 2003, with growth stronger some years than others. the chinese gdp has seen growth since 2003, with growth stronger some years than others. the chinese gdp has both increased and decreased since 2009.

Answers

The statement that best describes the trend in the graph is "the Chinese GDP has seen growth since 2003, with growth stronger some years than others."

What is the graph about?

The graph shows fluctuations in the Chinese GDP, with growth occurring overall since 2003, but with varying rates of growth each year. While there may have been some periods of decline, the overall trend is one of growth.

This is important for investors to note, as the Chinese economy remains a major player in the global market. It is important to keep an eye on these fluctuations and consider them in investment decisions, but overall the trend in the graph suggests that the Chinese economy has continued to grow in the past few years.

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the demand curve for a normal good slopes down for which of the following reasons? an increase in the price of the good induces consumers to purchase substitute products. an increase in the price of the goods reduces consumers' purchasing power. an increase in the price of the good increases consumers' utility from consuming that good.

Answers

The demand curve for a normal good slopes down due to an increase in the price of the good that reduces consumers' purchasing power. Option B is correct.

As the price of the good increases, consumers are less willing and able to purchase it, and may instead choose to purchase substitute products or reduce their overall consumption. This decrease in demand results in a downward sloping demand curve.

An increase in the price of the good does not increase consumers' utility from consuming that good, as the law of diminishing marginal utility suggests that as the quantity consumed increases, the marginal utility derived from each additional unit decreases.

Therefore, option B is correct.

the demand curve for a normal good slopes down for which of the following reasons?

A. an increase in the price of the good induces consumers to purchase substitute products.

B. an increase in the price of the goods reduces consumers' purchasing power.

C. an increase in the price of the good increases consumers' utility from consuming that good.

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personal selling is crucial in business-to-business marketing, especially when the deal involves intense price negotiations. (True or False)

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Situations where the deal involves intense price negotiations. Business-to-business (B2B) marketing typically involves selling goods or services to other businesses, rather than directly to consumers.

In this context, personal selling involves direct communication between a salesperson and a potential customer or client.

This type of communication allows the salesperson to build a personal relationship with the customer, gain a better understanding of their specific needs and preferences, and tailor their sales pitch accordingly.

In B2B marketing, price negotiations can often be complex and challenging.

Personal selling can be particularly effective in these situations, as it allows the salesperson to engage in a dialogue with the customer and address any concerns or objections they may have about the price or value of the product or service being offered.

The salesperson can also use their expertise and knowledge to explain the benefits and advantages of their product or service, and work with the customer to find a mutually agreeable price and payment structure.

Overall, personal selling is an important tool for B2B marketers, especially in situations where price negotiations are involved.

By building personal relationships with customers and tailoring their sales pitches to meet specific needs, salespeople can help to improve the chances of a successful sale and build long-term relationships with clients.

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which of the following is a business model in which the suppliers to a manufacturer (or retailer) manage the manufacturer's (or retailer's) inventory levels based on negotiated service levels?

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Business model in which the suppliers to a manufacturer (or retailer) manage the manufacturer's (or retailer's) inventory levels based on negotiated service levels is vendor-managed inventory (VMI).

Vendor Managed Inventory (VMI) is a proven inventory model designed to streamline inventory management and order fulfillment. In Vendor Managed Inventory, suppliers are responsible for managing the inventory levels of their customers (the manufacturer or retailer), ensuring that adequate stock is maintained to meet demand while minimizing excess inventory. This is achieved through close communication and collaboration between the supplier and the customer, often using shared inventory management systems and agreed-upon service levels.

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which of the following criterion is not a characteristic of the best incentive plans? multiple choice believable and achievable rewards monetary compensation to every employee measurable rewards linked to performance

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The criterion that is not a characteristic of the best incentive plans is monetary compensation to every employee.

While it may seem like a good idea to offer monetary incentives to every employee, it can actually be counterproductive as it may not motivate employees to perform better. Incentive plans should have believable and achievable rewards that are linked to performance and measurable so that employees can see the direct impact of their efforts. The best incentive plans are those that are designed to motivate and reward employees for specific achievements and behaviors that align with the organization's goals and values.

Such plans should be fair and transparent, with clear guidelines and metrics for success. Additionally, the best incentive plans should be flexible enough to be adjusted as needed to ensure they remain effective and relevant over time. Ultimately, the goal of incentive plans is to create a culture of high performance, where employees are engaged, motivated, and committed to achieving the organization's objectives.

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Porter’s Five Forces Framework suggests which of the following?
a. Firms can gain competitive advantage leveraging their strengths regardless of environmental factors.
b. Changes in suppliers’ technologies can alter the competitive environment within the focal industry.
c. The entrepreneurial abilities of managers are a central requirement for competing successfully in an industry.
d. Complementary products are most likely to rise in importance as substitutes to existing technologies.
e. Switching costs are lower for suppliers than for buyers.

Answers

Porter’s Five Forces Framework suggests that changes in suppliers’ technologies can alter the competitive environment within the focal industry.


Porter's Five Forces Framework suggests that option b, "Changes in suppliers’ technologies can alter the competitive environment within the focal industry," is the most accurate statement. This framework focuses on analyzing the competitive forces within an industry, and the role of suppliers is one of the key forces that can impact the competitive landscape.

Porter's Five Forces is a model that identifies and analyzes five competitive forces that shape every industry and helps determine an industry's weaknesses and strengths. Five Forces analysis is frequently used to identify an industry's structure to determine corporate strategy.

Porter's model can be applied to any segment of the economy to understand the level of competition within the industry and enhance a company's long-term profitability. The Five Forces model is named after Harvard Business School professor, Michael E. Porter.

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The correct answer is b. Changes in suppliers' technologies can alter the competitive environment within the focal industry.



Porter's Five Forces framework is a tool used to analyze the competitive environment within an industry. The five forces include the threat of new entrants, bargaining power of suppliers, bargaining power of buyers, threat of substitute products, and intensity of competitive rivalry. Option b is most relevant to the framework, as it emphasizes the influence of suppliers' technologies on the industry's competitive environment.

The threat of new competitors, Buyer, and Supplier bargaining power, Threat of New Substitutes, and Competitive Rivalry is Porter's Five Forces. This framework offers the information necessary to make strategic decisions and aids strategists in understanding what makes an industry profitable. Managers and analysts can better understand the competitive environment a company operates in and how it is positioned within it by using Porter's Five Forces Model.

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For Projects, time is always _________________________.
a. free
b. subject to negotiation with upper management
c. the responsibility of trained time management experts
d. a critical resource

Answers

d. For projects, time is always a critical resource. The timely completion of a project is frequently essential to its success.

For projects, time is always a critical resource. The success of a project often depends on completing the project within the given time frame. Delay in project completion can result in missed opportunities, increased costs, and reduced customer satisfaction. Time management is a crucial aspect of project management, and project managers are responsible for ensuring that the project is completed on time. They need to develop a project schedule, allocate resources, and monitor progress regularly to ensure that the project stays on track. Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

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Over the years, Ahmed and Aamina El-zayaty, of Berkeley, California, have accumulated $200,000 and $220,000, respectively, in their employer-sponsored retirement plans. If the amounts in their two accounts earn a 6 percent rate of return over Ahmed and Aamina's anticipated 20 years of retirement, how large of an amount could be withdrawn from Ahmed's account each month? Use the Garman/Forgue companion website or Appendix A-4 to make your calculations. A. $1,787 B. $1,453 C. $2,287 D. $1,919

Answers

None of the answer options match this amount exactly but the closest one is option C.

To calculate the amount that could be withdrawn from Ahmed's account each month, we can use the present value annuity formula:

PMT = PV x (r / (1 - (1 + r)^-n))

Where PMT is the monthly payment, PV is the present value of Ahmed's retirement account, r is the monthly interest rate (which is 6% / 12 = 0.5%), and n is the number of months in retirement (which is 20 years x 12 months/year = 240 months).

Plugging in the numbers for Ahmed's retirement account, we get:

PMT = 200,000 x (0.005 / (1 - (1 + 0.005)^-240))

PMT = 200,000 x (0.005 / 0.3567)

PMT = 200,000 x 0.014

PMT = $2,800

Therefore, Ahmed could withdraw $2,800 per month from his retirement account.

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