a video game designer developed a new game and wanted to test its ease of use. to gather some data, the designer asked her co-workers to play the game and give her feedback. the designer also released the test version of the game on her personal website and left a survey for feedback from users. what is the selection bias in this scenario?

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Answer 1

The selection bias in this scenario is that the game designer is collecting feedback from her co-workers and from users who visit her personal website. This means that the sample of players who are providing feedback may not be representative of the larger population of potential players.

The co-workers may have a personal relationship with the game designer and may be more likely to give positive feedback, or may be more familiar with the game design process and thus better able to provide constructive feedback. Meanwhile, users who visit the designer's website may be more likely to have a particular interest in the game or in the designer's work, which could also bias their feedback.

To minimize selection bias, the game designer could try to gather feedback from a more diverse group of players. For example, they could recruit players through online gaming communities, social media, or other channels to ensure a broader range of opinions and experiences.

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Related Questions

When consumers begin to think of an advertisement as old or stale, the concept being illustrated is:
A) a sales-response curve
B) wear out effects
C) decay effects
D) carryover effects

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The concept being illustrated when consumers begin to think of an advertisement as old or stale is (B) wear out effects.

Wear out effects occur when an advertisement loses its effectiveness over time due to repeated exposure to the target audience. This can result in consumers becoming less interested in the advertisement, and potentially less interested in the product or service being advertised. It is important for advertisers to be aware of wear out effects and to regularly refresh their advertising campaigns in order to keep their message fresh and engaging to consumers. This can be done through changing the creative elements of the advertisement, altering the media or placement of the advertisement, or introducing new promotional offers or messaging. By actively managing wear out effects, advertisers can ensure that their advertising investments continue to generate results and drive sales.

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The Tipido Police Department may support ______ in its hiring practices, but if the department does not allow individuals like Ari to be part of decision-making processes, then it’s surely not ______. Multiple Choice inclusivity; ethnocentric diversity; profitable diversity; ethnocentric diversity; inclusive inclusivity; profitable

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The Tipido Police Department may claim to support inclusivity in its hiring practices, but if the department does not allow individuals like Ari to be part of decision-making processes, then it is surely not inclusive.

Inclusivity means creating a diverse and welcoming environment where individuals of all backgrounds and identities are valued and empowered to contribute to the organization's goals and objectives.

However, if the department is only focused on profitable diversity, which means hiring individuals from diverse backgrounds solely for the purpose of increasing profits or public perception, then it may not necessarily be inclusive or diverse.

To truly create an inclusive workplace, the department needs to prioritize diversity and inclusion at every level of the organization, including decision-making processes. This means giving individuals like Ari an equal voice and a seat at the table to ensure that diverse perspectives and experiences are taken into account when making important decisions.

Ultimately, an inclusive workplace culture benefits everyone involved, from employees to customers and the broader community.

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when performing capital budgeting analysis on international projects, managers: select answer from the options below find it less difficult to estimate the incremental cash flows for foreign projects relative to domestic projects. have to deal with foreign exchange rate risk on international and domestic capital investments. must incorporate a country risk premium even when evaluating domestic business activities. must incorporate a country risk premium when evaluating foreign business activities.

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When performing capital budgeting analysis on international projects, managers must incorporate a country risk premium when evaluating foreign business activities (Option D).

This is because international projects are subject to additional risks and uncertainties associated with the foreign country's political and economic environment, which may impact the project's cash flows and profitability. The country risk premium is used to adjust the discount rate used in the capital budgeting analysis to reflect the additional risk associated with the foreign investment.

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camille transfers property with a tax basis of $945 and a fair market value of $1,445 to a corporation in exchange for stock with a fair market value of $1,350 and $95 in cash in a transaction that qualifies for deferral under section 351. camille also incurred selling expenses of $199. what is the amount realized by camille in the exchange?

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The amount realized by Camille in the exchange is $1,246.

In order to calculate the amount realized by Camille in the exchange that qualifies for deferral under section 351, we need to consider the fair market value of the stock received, the cash received, and the selling expenses incurred.

1: Determine the fair market value of the stock received.

Camille received stock with a fair market value of $1,350.

2: Determine the cash received.

Camille received $95 in cash.

3: Consider the selling expenses incurred.

Camille incurred selling expenses of $199.

4: Calculate the amount realized.

Amount realized = (Fair market value of stock received) + (Cash received) - (Selling expenses)

Amount realized = ($1,350) + ($95) - ($199)

Amount realized = $1,246

Therefore, the amount realized by Camille is $1,246.

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a piece of construction equipment (asset class 15.0) was purchased by the jones construction company. the cost basis was $300,000. a. determine the gds and ads depreciation deductions for this property. b. compute the difference in pw of the two sets of depreciation deductions in part (a) if i

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Determining the GDS and ADS depreciation deductions for a piece of construction equipment (asset class 15.0) purchased by Jones Construction Company with a cost basis of $300,000.

You also want to compute the difference in present value (PW) of the two sets of depreciation deductions. a. To determine the GDS and ADS depreciation deductions. 1. Identify the recovery period: For asset class 15.0, the recovery period under GDS is 5 years, and under ADS, it is 6 years.

2. Calculate the depreciation rate: Under GDS, using the 200% declining balance method, the rate is (200% / 5 years) = 40%. Under ADS, using the straight-line method, the rate is (100% / 6 years) = 16.67%.

3. Calculate the annual depreciation deductions: - GDS: Year 1: $300,000 x 40% = $120,000, Year 2: ($300,000 $120,000) x 40% = $72,000, and so on. - ADS: $300,000 x 16.67% = $50,010 per year for 6 years.

b. To compute the difference in PW of the two sets of depreciation deductions: 1. Calculate the present value of GDS deductions by discounting each year's deduction amount to present value using the company's discount rate.

2. Calculate the present value of ADS deductions by discounting each year's deduction amount to present value using the company's discount rate. 3. Subtract the PW of ADS deductions from the PW of GDS deductions to obtain the difference in PW.

The process of calculating GDS and ADS depreciation deductions and the difference in their present values for a piece of construction equipment.

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Discuss the concept of credit derivatives and explaintheir relevance in the modern financial system.

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Credit derivatives are financial instruments whose value is derived from the credit risk associated with an underlying asset, such as bonds or loans. These instruments allow for the transfer of credit risk between parties, enabling them to manage their exposure to potential losses from credit events, such as default or bankruptcy.

The main types of credit derivatives include:

1. Credit default swaps (CDS): These are contracts where the buyer pays a premium to the seller in exchange for protection against default or credit events related to the underlying asset. If a credit event occurs, the seller compensates the buyer for their loss.

2.
Credit-linked notes (CLN): These are debt securities where the issuer's repayment obligation is linked to the performance of an underlying reference asset, such as a bond or loan. If the reference asset experiences a credit event, the noteholder may experience a reduction in the principal or interest payments.

3. Collateralized debt obligations (CDO): These are structured finance products that pool together a portfolio of assets, such as loans or bonds, and issue various classes of securities (tranches) with different risk-return profiles to investors. The cash flows from the underlying assets are distributed to the tranches in a predetermined order, with senior tranches receiving payments first and the equity tranche last.

Credit derivatives are relevant in the modern financial system for several reasons:

1. Risk management: They allow financial institutions and investors to manage and diversify their credit risk exposure, helping to prevent concentration of risk and reduce the potential for financial losses.

2. Price discovery: Credit derivatives provide a market-based measure of the creditworthiness of the underlying assets, which can help participants better understand the pricing of credit risk.

3.
Liquidity: Trading in credit derivatives allows for the transfer of credit risk without the need to sell the underlying assets, which can be more efficient and provide increased liquidity in the market.

4. Capital efficiency: By transferring credit risk to other parties, financial institutions can potentially reduce their regulatory capital requirements, freeing up capital for other uses.

In conclusion, credit derivatives are essential tools in the modern financial system, allowing market participants to manage credit risk, improve price discovery, enhance liquidity, and promote capital efficiency.

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technical constraints have been carefully considered when developing a project network. which of the following is true at this point?

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If technical constraints have been carefully considered when developing a project network, it means that the network has been designed to take into account the technological limitations and requirements that may affect the project's implementation.

Some possible implications of this are:

1. Feasibility: The project network is more likely to be feasible since technical constraints have been considered. It is less likely that the project plan includes tasks that cannot be accomplished due to technological limitations.

2. Realistic scheduling: The project schedule is more likely to be realistic since it takes into account the time required for technical tasks and the limitations of the available technology.

3. Reduced risks: The risk of encountering unexpected technical difficulties during the project is lower because the technical constraints have been considered and addressed beforehand.

Therefore, if technical constraints have been carefully considered when developing a project network, it is likely that the project plan is more feasible, realistic, and has lower risks.

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What is a baseline product backlog?

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A baseline product backlog is essentially the initial version of the product backlog that outlines all of the features and requirements for a particular product. It is the starting point for a project, and it can be used to guide the development process throughout the entire project lifecycle.

The baseline product backlog is typically created by the product owner and development team, and it is used to ensure that all stakeholders are aligned on the overall vision for the product.

The baseline product backlog is important because it provides a clear picture of what needs to be done in order to create a successful product. It helps the team to identify the key features and functionalities that are necessary for the product to meet its objectives, and it can be used to prioritize tasks and allocate resources effectively. Additionally, the baseline product backlog provides a benchmark against which progress can be measured throughout the project, helping to ensure that the team is making steady progress towards the end goal.

In conclusion, a baseline product backlog is a critical component of any product development project. By providing a clear roadmap for the development team, it helps to ensure that the final product meets the needs and expectations of all stakeholders. It is a dynamic document that is constantly evolving as new information and requirements are uncovered, and it should be regularly reviewed and updated to reflect changes in the project scope and objectives.

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Hawkins Manufacturing Company produces connecting rods for 4- and 6-cylinder automobile engines using the same production line. The cost required to set up the production line to produce the 4-cylinder connecting rods is $2,000, and the cost required to set up the production line for the 6-cylinder connecting rods is $3,200. Manufacturing costs are $11 for each 4-cylinder connecting rod and $20 for each 6-cylinder connecting rod. Hawkins makes a decision at the end of each week as to which product will be manufactured the following week. If a production changeover is necessary from one week to the next, the weekend is used to reconfigure the production line. Once the line has been set up, the weekly production capacities are 6,300 6-cylinder connecting rods and 9,000 4-cylinder connecting rods.
Let
x4 = the number of 4-cylinder connecting rods produced next week
x6 = the number of 6-cylinder connecting rods produced next week
s4= 1 if the production line is set up to produce the 4-cylinder connecting rods; 0 if otherwise
s6 = 1 if the production line is set up to produce the 6-cylinder connecting rods; 0 if otherwise
a. Using the decision variables x4 and s4, write a constraint that limits next week's production of the 4-cylinder connecting rods to either 0 or 9,000 units. If the constant is "1" it must be entered in the box. If your answer is zero enter "0".
b. fill in the blank 1 x4 fill in the blank 3 s4
Using the decision variables x6 and s6, write a constraint that limits next week's production of the 6-cylinder connecting rods to either 0 or 6,300 units. If the constant is "1" it must be entered in the box. If your answer is zero enter "0".
c. fill in the blank 4 x6 fill in the blank 6 s6
Write three constraints that, taken together, limit the production of connecting rods for next week. If the constant is "1" it must be entered in the box. If your answer is zero enter "0".
fill in the blank 7 x4 fill in the blank 9 s4
fill in the blank 10 x6 fill in the blank 12 s6
fill in the blank 13 s4 + fill in the blank 14 s6 fill in the blank 16
d. Write an objective function for minimizing the cost of production for next week.
Min fill in the blank 17 x4 + fill in the blank 18 x6 + fill in the blank 19 s4 + fill in the blank 20 s6

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Weekly production capacities of Hawkins Manufacturing Company a. 0 ≤ x4 ≤ 9,000(1 - s4), b. 1x4 + 0s4 ≤ 9,000, c. 0 ≤ x4 ≤ 9,000s4    0 ≤ x6 ≤ 6,300s6  s4 + s6 = 1. d. Minimize 11x4 + 20x6 + 2,000s4 + 3,200s6


a. Constraint for 4-cylinder connecting rods production:

0 ≤ x4 ≤ 9000 * s4

b. Fill in the blanks: 1 x4 ≤ 9000 s4

c. Constraint for 6-cylinder connecting rods production:

0 ≤ x6 ≤ 6300 * s6

Fill in the blanks: 4 x6 ≤ 6300 s6

d. Three constraints that limit the production of connecting rods for next week:

1. 0 ≤ x4 ≤ 9000 * s4
2. 0 ≤ x6 ≤ 6300 * s6
3. s4 + s6 = 1

Fill in the blanks:
7 x4 ≤ 9000 s4
10 x6 ≤ 6300 s6
13 s4 + 14 s6 = 16 (constant should be 1)

e. Objective function for minimizing the cost of production for next week:

Min (11 * x4 + 20 * x6 + 2000 * s4 + 3200 * s6)

Fill in the blanks:
17 x4 = 11 x4
18 x6 = 20 x6
19 s4 = 2000 s4
20 s6 = 3200 s6

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as sales volume increases, an operation's mixed-expense percentage decreases while the total dollar amount of the mixed expense increases.

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The statement "As sales volume increases, an operation's mixed-expense percentage decreases while the total dollar amount of the mixed expense increases"  is true because when sales volume increases, the mixed-expense percentage decreases due to the fixed component's diminishing proportion, while the total dollar amount of the mixed expense increases due to the rising variable component.

The reasons are as follows:

Mixed expenses consist of both fixed and variable components. The fixed component remains constant regardless of the sales volume, while the variable component changes proportionally with the sales volume.As sales volume increases, the fixed component becomes a smaller percentage of the total mixed expense, causing the mixed-expense percentage to decrease.Meanwhile, the variable component of the mixed expense increases with the sales volume, leading to an increase in the total dollar amount of the mixed expense.

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each call option contract brings together a buyer and a writer, also known as the seller. which of the following describes the profit and loss potential of call option writers? limited upside gain and unlimited downside losses limited upside gain and limited downside losses unlimited upside gain and limited downside losses unlimited upside gain and unlimited downside losses

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A call option contract brings together a buyer and a writer, also known as the seller. The profit and loss potential of call option writers can be described as follows: Limited upside gain and unlimited downside losses. The correct Option is A.

This is the correct description of the profit and loss potential of call option writers. When writing a call option, the writer receives a premium from the buyer. This premium is the maximum profit the writer can make, resulting in limited upside gain.

However, if the underlying asset's price increases significantly, the call option writer may have to buy the asset at a higher price and sell it to the option buyer at a lower, predetermined strike price. This could result in significant losses, making the downside potential unlimited.

In summary, the profit and loss potential of call option writers can be described as having limited upside gain and unlimited downside losses. This is because their maximum profit is limited to the premium received from the buyer, while the downside losses could potentially be unlimited if the underlying asset's price rises significantly. The correct Option is A.

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Complete question:

each call option contract brings together a buyer and a writer, also known as the seller. which of the following describes the profit and loss potential of call option writers?

a. limited upside gain and unlimited downside losses

b. limited upside gain and limited downside losses

c. unlimited upside gain and limited downside losses

d. unlimited upside gain and unlimited downside losses

All of the following are Period costs except a. Sales commissions b. office worker's salaries c. electricity used to run the manufacturing process d. advertising expense

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All of the options listed are Period costs except for the electricity used to run the manufacturing process. Therefore, the correct option is c.  electricity used to run the manufacturing process

Period costs are expenses that are not directly related to the production process but rather support the general operation of the business.

Product costs are expenses that are directly related to the production process and are included in the cost of goods sold.

Electricity used to run the manufacturing process is considered a product cost because it is directly related to the production process and is included in the cost of goods sold.

Sales commissions, office worker's salaries, and advertising expenses are all expenses incurred to support the general operation of the business and are not directly related to the production process.

In conclusion, all of the options listed are Period costs except for the electricity used to run the manufacturing process, which is a product cost. Period costs are expenses incurred to support the general operation of the business and are not included in the cost of goods sold.

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a company using a perpetual inventory system that returns goods previously purchased on credit would question 24 options: decreases accounts payable and decreases inventory. decreases sales and increases accounts payable. increases cash and increases accounts payable. decreases accounts payable and decreases purchases.

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When a company using a perpetual inventory system returns goods previously purchased on credit, the correct option is: decreases accounts payable and decreases inventory.

What's perpetual inventory system

In this scenario, the company has initially recorded the purchase of goods on credit, which increases both inventory and accounts payable. When the goods are returned, the company needs to reverse these transactions.

As a result, the inventory is decreased because the returned goods are no longer part of the company's available stock. Simultaneously, the accounts payable are decreased because the company's obligation to pay for the returned goods is removed.

Thus, the overall effect of returning goods purchased on credit in a perpetual inventory system is a decrease in both inventory and accounts payable.

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3. The North Division of a business sells 10055 units resulting in $113600 of sales revenue, $41300 of variable costs and $42271 of fixed cost. To achieve $150231 in operating cost, sales must total $. 4. Sales total $328856 when variable costs total $240591 and fixed cost $78411. The breakeven point in sales dollars is $_____

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The break-even point (BEP) or break-even level is the amount of sales needed to cover all expenses, including both fixed and variable costs to the firm, in terms of either units sold or revenue generated (sales). Zero dollars are made overall at break-even.

Given,

P.V. Ratio = (Sales - Variable cost/ Sales )×100

= (328856-240591/328856)×100

= 26.84 %

Breakeven Point = Fixed Cost/P.V. Ratio

= 78411/26.84%

= 292142

In other words, you've arrived at the point in your manufacturing cycle where the income from a product is equal to its production expenses.

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University of Florida football programs are printed 1 week prior to each home game. Attendance averages90,000screaming and loyal Gators​ fans, of whom​ two-thirds usually buy the​ program, following a normal​ distribution, for​$5each. Unsold programs are sent to a recycling center that pays only10cents per program. The standard deviation is5,000​programs, and the cost to print each program is​$2.Refer to the standard normal tableLOADING...for​ z-values.Part 2​a) What is the cost of underestimating demand for each​ program?Cs=​$3​(round your response to two decimal​ places).Part 3​b) What is the overage cost per​ program?Co=​$1.9​(round your response to two decimal​ places).*Part 4​c) How many programs should be ordered per​ game?enter your response hereprograms should be ordered per game ​(round your response to the nearest whole​ number).*Part 5d) What is the stockout risk for this order size?enter your response here

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So the stock out risk is: 1 - 0.8413 = 0.1587 Multiplying by 100%, we get 15.87%.

Part 2a) The cost of underestimating demand for each program is Cs=$3.

To calculate this, we need to find the difference between the revenue from selling the program at full price and the revenue from selling the program at the recycling center. If we underestimate demand, we will have unsold programs that we need to sell at the recycling center for only 10 cents each. The revenue from selling the program at full price is $5, and the cost to print each program is $2. Therefore, the revenue per program is $3 ($5 - $2). So, if we sell a program at the recycling center, we lose $2.90 ($3 - $0.10), which is the cost of underestimating demand for each program.

Part 3b) The average cost per program is Co=$1.9.

If we overestimate demand, we will have leftover programs that we cannot sell. These programs cost $2 to print, but we do not earn any revenue from them. Therefore, the verage cost per program is $2 - $0.10 = $1.90.

Part 4c) The number of programs that should be ordered per game is 60,000.

To calculate this, we need to find the order quantity that minimizes the total cost, which includes the cost of printing and the cost of underestimating and overestimating demand. The formula for the total cost is:

TC = (D/Q) * (Cp + Co/2) + Cs * P(D < Dbar)

where:
D = demand (90,000 * 2/3 = 60,000 programs)
Q = order quantity (unknown)
Cp = cost to print each program ($2)
Co = verage cost per program ($1.90)
Cs = cost of underestimating demand for each program ($3)
P(D < Dbar) = probability of demand being less than the order quantity

We can use the standard normal table to find the probability of demand being less than the order quantity. The mean demand is 60,000 programs, and the standard deviation is 5,000 programs. We can standardize the demand by subtracting the mean and dividing by the standard deviation:

z = (Q - D) / σ
z = (Q - 60,000) / 5,000

We can then look up the probability of z being less than this value in the standard normal table. The closest value we can find is 0.8413. This means that there is an 84.13% chance that demand will be less than the order quantity.

Substituting these values into the total cost formula and taking the derivative with respect to Q, we get:

dTC/dQ = -(D/Q^2) * (Cp + Co/2) + Cs * P(D < Dbar) * (-1/σ) * φ(z)

where:
φ(z) = probability density function of the standard normal distribution evaluated at z

Setting dTC/dQ = 0 and solving for Q, we get:

Q = sqrt(2D(Cp + Co/2) / Cs * φ(z) * σ)

Substituting the values we know, we get:

Q = sqrt(2 * 60,000 * ($2 + $1.90/2) / $3 * 0.8413 * 5,000)
Q = 59,307.16

Since we cannot order a fraction of a program, we should order 60,000 programs per game.

Part 5d) The stockout risk for this order size is 15.87%.

The stockout risk is the probability of demand exceeding the order quantity, which is 1 - P(D < Dbar). We already found that P(D < Dbar) is 0.8413, so the stockout risk is:

1 - 0.8413 = 0.1587

Multiplying by 100%, we get 15.87%.

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the introduction stage of the industry life cycle is characterized by which of the following characteristics? (check all that apply.)

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The introduction stage of the industry life cycle is typically characterized by the following characteristics:

1. Low sales volume: In the introduction stage, the sales volume is typically low because the product is new to the market, and there may be limited awareness or demand for it.

2. High marketing and advertising costs: Companies often spend a significant amount of money on marketing and advertising during the introduction stage to create awareness and generate demand for the new product.

3. Limited distribution channels: At the beginning of the introduction stage, the product may only be available in select locations or through limited distribution channels as companies work to establish their market position.

4. High research and development costs: Companies typically invest heavily in research and development during the introduction stage to refine the product and improve its features and functionality.

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by comparing the opportunity cost of producing shoes in the two countries, you can tell that _____ ireland has a comparative advantage in the production of shoes andwales has a comparative advantage in the production of sunflowers.

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By comparing the opportunity cost of producing shoes in the two countries, you can tell that Ireland has a comparative advantage in the production of shoes, while Wales has a comparative advantage in the production of sunflowers.

By comparing the opportunity cost of producing shoes in the two countries, you can tell that Ireland has a comparative advantage in the production of shoes and Wales has a comparative advantage in the production of sunflowers. This means that Ireland can produce shoes at a lower opportunity cost than Wales, and Wales can produce sunflowers at a lower opportunity cost than Ireland. Therefore, it would be more efficient for Ireland to focus on producing shoes and for Wales to focus on producing sunflowers, and they can trade with each other to benefit from their respective comparative advantages.

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A company's flexible budget for 42,000 units of production showed variable overhead costs of $50,400 and fixed overhead costs of $58,000. The company incurred overhead costs of $97,660 while operating at a volume of 34,000 units. The total controllable cost variance is:
a. $10,740 favorable.
b. $1,140 unfavorable.
c. $1,140 favorable.
d. $12,740 favorable.
e. $10,740 unfavorable.

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The company is said to be operating at a volume of 34,000 units with an overhead costs pf $97,660. Based on this, the total controllable cost variance will be unfavorable for $1140 i.e. option B when it has a flexible budget of 42,000 units with fixed and variable overheads of $58,000 and $50,400 respectively.

To determine the total controllable cost variance, you need to follow these steps:

1. Calculate the flexible budget for 34,000 units of production.
2. Compare the actual overhead costs with the flexible budget.

Step 1: Calculate the flexible budget for 34,000 units of production.
Variable overhead cost per unit = Total variable overhead costs / Total units of production
Variable overhead cost per unit = $50,400 / 42,000 units = $1.2 per unit

For 34,000 units:
Total variable overhead costs = Variable overhead cost per unit * Units of production
Total variable overhead costs = $1.2 per unit * 34,000 units = $40,800

Fixed overhead costs remain the same at $58,000.

Flexible budget for 34,000 units = Total variable overhead costs + Fixed overhead costs
Flexible budget for 34,000 units = $40,800 + $58,000 = $98,800

Step 2: Compare the actual overhead costs with the flexible budget.
Actual overhead costs = $97,660
Flexible budget = $98,800

Total controllable cost variance = Actual overhead costs - Flexible budget
Total controllable cost variance = $97,660 - $98,800 = -$1,140

Since the variance is negative, it is unfavorable. The total controllable cost variance is b. $1,140 unfavorable.

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on december 30 of the current year, chang co. sold a machine to door co. in exchange for a non-interest-bearing note requiring ten annual payments of $10,000. door made the first payment on that same date. the market interest rate for similar notes at date of issuance was 8%. information on present value factors is as follows: period present value of $1 at 8% present value of ordinary annuity of 1$ at 8% 9 0.50 6.25 10 0.46 6.71in its december 31 year-end balance sheet, what amount should chang report as note receivable?

Answers

Chang Co. should report the note receivable as $57,100 in its December 31 year-end balance sheet.

How to determine the amount should be reported as note receivable

Based on the information provided, Chang Co. should report the note receivable in its December 31 year-end balance sheet as follows:

The present value of the non-interest-bearing note can be calculated using the present value of an ordinary annuity factor for the given market interest rate (8%).

As there are 10 annual payments of $10,000 each, we will use the 10-period annuity factor of 6.71.

Present Value = Payment Amount x Present Value of Ordinary Annuity Factor

Present Value = $10,000 x 6.71

Present Value = $67,100

Since Door Co. made the first payment of $10,000 on December 30, we need to subtract that amount from the total present value.

Note Receivable = Present Value - First Payment Note Receivable = $67,100 - $10,000

Note Receivable = $57,100

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The highest percentage growth in forecasted health occupations employment by 2022 is for which of the following occupations? Not yet answered Points out of 1.00 Select one: O A. Physician assistants P Flag question O B. Registered nurses O C. Physicians and surgeons O D. Medical and health services managers O E. None of these is correct.

Answers

According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS), the occupation with the highest percentage growth in forecasted health occupations employment by 2022 is Physician Assistants (PAs).

The BLS projects a 37% increase in employment for PAs between 2016 and 2026, which is much faster than the average growth rate for all occupations.

This growth is attributed to several factors, including an aging population that requires more medical services, an increasing emphasis on preventive care, and a shortage of primary care physicians.

PAs are trained to provide diagnostic, therapeutic, and preventive healthcare services under the supervision of physicians and surgeons. They perform a wide range of tasks, including taking medical histories, examining and treating patients, ordering and interpreting diagnostic tests, and prescribing medications.

The demand for PAs is expected to grow as healthcare providers seek to expand access to care and increase efficiency.

PAs can help to alleviate the shortage of primary care physicians by providing many of the same services and freeing up physicians to focus on more complex cases.

In summary, the occupation with the highest percentage growth in forecasted health occupations employment by 2022 is Physician Assistants, with a projected 37% increase in employment between 2016 and 2026.

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The third line of defense, also known as ________ immunity provides long-term protection against foreign antigens encountered through infection or vaccination.

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The third line of defense, also known as adaptive or acquired immunity, is a type of immune response that provides long-term protection against foreign antigens encountered through infection or vaccination. This system involves the production of specific antibodies that recognize and neutralize the invading pathogen.

Unlike the innate immune system, which provides immediate but non-specific protection, the adaptive immune system takes longer to activate but provides targeted and long-lasting defense against specific pathogens. This system also has the ability to remember previous encounters with pathogens and mount a more rapid and effective response upon subsequent exposure.

Vaccination works by introducing a harmless form of the pathogen to the body, triggering an immune response that leads to the production of specific antibodies that can recognize and neutralize the actual pathogen if encountered later. Overall, the third line of defense plays a crucial role in protecting the body against infections and maintaining long-term immunity.

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Walter runs a business which is VAT registered. During the quarter ended 31 March 2022, the business made the following supplies (exclusive of VAT): E 92,500 Standard rated supplies Exempt supplies Total supplies 12,300 104,800 Input VAT suffered in the quarter of E25,400 included £16,900 VAT on purchases directly attributable to taxable supplies and £1,500 VAT on purchases attributable to exempt supplies => The input VAT deductible in the VAT 100 return for the quarter to 31 March 2022 is: Select one: a.24,465 b 25,400 cE16,900 d 23,130

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The input VAT deductible in the VAT 100 return for the quarter to 31 March 2022 is 25,400. This is because input VAT is the VAT paid by the business on goods and services purchased for use in its business activities. The correct option is b.

In this case, Walter's business has incurred a total input VAT of E25,400, which includes VAT on purchases directly attributable to taxable supplies and VAT on purchases attributable to exempt supplies.

However, since the business is VAT registered, it is entitled to claim back the VAT it has paid on purchases to reduce its overall VAT liability.

Therefore, the input VAT deductible in the VAT 100 return for the quarter is E25,400. This will help to reduce the VAT payable on the business's standard rated supplies of E92,500. It is important for businesses to accurately record and claim input VAT to ensure compliance with VAT regulations and to manage their cash flow effectively. The correct option is b.

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The documentation of a project cost estimate generally requires substantial supporting detail to include all of these EXCEPT:a. a description of scope.b. management reserve needsc. the estimating methods and a range of possible outcomes.d. assumptions and constraints.

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The documentation of a project cost estimate generally requires substantial supporting detail to include all of these EXCEPT management reserve needs.

In a project cost estimate, the following elements are typically included:

a. A description of scope: This outlines the work required to complete the project, detailing its objectives, requirements, and boundaries.

It helps in establishing a clear understanding of the project's purpose and ensures that all necessary tasks are accounted for in the cost estimate.

c. The estimating methods and a range of possible outcomes: Various methods can be used to estimate project costs, such as parametric, analogous, and bottom-up estimating.

Documenting the chosen method and providing a range of possible cost outcomes helps stakeholders understand the accuracy and reliability of the estimate.

d. Assumptions and constraints: Assumptions are factors that are believed to be true but have not been verified, while constraints are limitations that affect the project.

Both can have a significant impact on the project cost estimate. By documenting them, stakeholders can assess the risks and make informed decisions.

However, management reserve needs are NOT typically included in the project cost estimate documentation.

Management reserve is a contingency amount set aside by the project manager to address unforeseen risks or issues that may arise during the project.

While it is an essential aspect of project management, it is not part of the detailed cost estimate documentation, as it is not directly related to the project's scope, estimating methods, or assumptions and constraints.

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retained earnings represents cumulative __________ by the business. A) profits retained. B) cash earned. C) paid-in capital. D) cash retained. E) net income

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Retained earnings represents cumulative profits retained by the business. Therefore, the answer is A) profits retained.

Retained earnings represents cumulative profits retained by the business. Retained earnings is an important component of the shareholders' equity section of the balance sheet. It represents the cumulative amount of net income that a business has retained over time after paying dividends to shareholders.

When a company earns a profit, it has two options: distribute the profit to shareholders as dividends or retain the profit to reinvest in the business. If the company chooses to retain the profit, it is added to the retained earnings account on the balance sheet. Therefore, the correct answer is option (A) profits retained.

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Overhead costs associated with the number of layers of management in a firm are part of the _________ activities of the value chain.
A. human resources management
B. operations
C. firm infrastructure
D. marketing and sales

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Overhead costs associated with the number of layers of management in a firm are part of the firm infrastructure activities of the value chain.

The correct answer is C. Firm Infrastructure.

The value chain consists of various activities that businesses go through to deliver a valuable product or service to their customers.

These activities can be classified into primary and support activities. Primary activities include inbound logistics, operations, outbound logistics, marketing and sales, and service.

Support activities, on the other hand, include firm infrastructure, human resources management, technology development, and procurement.

Firm infrastructure refers to the organizational structure, management systems, and overall administrative support that help the company function efficiently.

This includes the layers of management and their associated overhead costs, which are necessary for coordinating and overseeing the different departments and processes within the organization.

In contrast, human resources management (A) focuses on the recruitment, training, and development of employees;

operations (B) deals with the actual production and transformation of inputs into finished goods or services

; and marketing and sales (D) encompasses the promotion, advertising, and selling of the company's products or services.

To summarize, the overhead costs related to the layers of management within a firm are part of the firm infrastructure activities (C) in the value chain.

These costs help support the overall functioning of the organization and contribute to its ability to deliver value to customers.

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In the practice of ________, behaviorally targeted ads from one website follow an online shopper when he or she moves on to other websites.
A) flanking
B) remarketing
C) cyber stalking
D) stealth advertising
E) unethical marketing

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In the practice of remarketing, behaviorally targeted ads from one website follow an online shopper when he or she moves on to other websites.

Remarketing is a type of online advertising that allows marketers to show ads to users who have previously interacted with their website or online content. This strategy involves the use of cookies to track users' online behavior and display relevant ads based on their browsing history.

Remarketing can be an effective way to re-engage users who may have shown interest in a product or service but did not complete a desired action, such as making a purchase. However, it can also be perceived as intrusive or annoying by some users, especially if they feel like they are being followed or stalked online.

To avoid ethical concerns, marketers should be transparent about their use of remarketing and provide users with the option to opt-out of targeted advertising. They should also ensure that their ads are relevant and helpful to users, rather than intrusive or irrelevant. Overall, remarketing can be a valuable tool for marketers, but it should be used responsibly and with the user's privacy and preferences in mind.

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Gillette sends out a free razor to induce switching from an older model. This is an example of using ________ as the sales promotion approach.
Select one:
a. coupons
b. product sampling
c. product placements
d. premiums
e. comparative parity method

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The correct response is b. product sampling. Gillette sending out a free razor to induce switching from an older model is an example of using product sampling as the sales promotion approach.

Product sampling involves offering a small, free, or discounted trial of a product to prospective customers, allowing them to experience and evaluate the product before making a purchase decision. This strategy can be highly effective in generating interest and encouraging customers to switch from older models or competing products. In the case of Gillette, providing a free razor not only showcases the improved features and benefits of their newer models but also creates a positive brand association by offering a valuable incentive to potential buyers.

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_____________ takes advantage of a salesperson's technical knowledge.
A. Geographic orientation
B. Product organization
C. Customer type
D. Market organization
E. Workload method

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B. Product organization takes advantage of a salesperson's technical knowledge. In a product organization, salespeople are organized by the types of products they sell.

This means that each salesperson is responsible for selling a specific product or group of products. As a result, they are expected to have in-depth technical knowledge of those products, including how they work, their features and benefits, and how they compare to other similar products in the market. This knowledge is essential for salespeople to be able to effectively sell these products to customers and answer any questions or concerns they may have.

However, this also means that salespeople in a product organization can be taken advantage of by customers who may try to exploit their technical knowledge to negotiate better deals or get more information about competitors' products. It is therefore important for salespeople to be trained on how to navigate these situations and ensure they are not giving away too much information or being taken advantage of. Overall, while product organization can be beneficial for salespeople in terms of developing technical expertise, it also comes with its own set of challenges that need to be addressed.

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There are two basic types of project selection models, ____________________.
a. numeric and nonnumeric
b. numeric and random
c. binary and continuous
d. quantitative and criteria-based

Answers

There are two basic types of project selection models a. numeric and nonnumeric.

The two basic types of project selection models are numeric and nonnumeric. Numeric models use quantitative data and calculations to evaluate the potential value of a project. Examples of numeric models include cost-benefit analysis, return on investment (ROI), net present value (NPV), and internal rate of return (IRR).

On the other hand, nonnumeric models use qualitative factors to assess the potential value of a project. These factors may include strategic alignment, risk, social responsibility, and environmental impact. Examples of nonnumeric models include decision trees, scoring models, and benefit contribution models.

Both numeric and nonnumeric models have their own advantages and disadvantages, and the choice of which model to use will depend on the specific needs and priorities of the organization. Some companies may prefer to use numeric models to make objective decisions based on data, while others may prefer nonnumeric models to incorporate a wider range of factors into their decision-making process.

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If a taxpayer works at two or more jobs during the same day, he or she may deduct the cost of transportation from one job to the other.
A. True
B. False"

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The answer is A, true. According to the IRS, if a taxpayer works at two or more jobs on the same day, they can deduct the cost of transportation from one job to the other as a work-related expense.

This deduction applies whether the jobs are in the same industry or different industries, and whether they are part-time or full-time. However, it is important to keep accurate records of the expenses and the purpose of the travel, such as keeping receipts for gas or public transportation, to support the deduction. Additionally, commuting from home to the first job and from the last job back home is not deductible, as it is considered a personal expense. But if the taxpayer has a home office or conducts business activities from home, the commuting expenses may be deductible. Overall, it is important for taxpayers to consult with a tax professional or utilize tax preparation software to ensure they are properly claiming all eligible deductions and credits on their tax return.

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