Activities that help prevent this client (with history of multiple minor strokes) from falling include moving the bedroom to ground floor, clearing the floor of clutter, and installing night lights in the bathroom and hallway.
What Causes Minor Strokes?The term "mini stroke" often refers to a transient ischemic attack (TIA) which is a temporary disruption of blood flow to part of brain, spinal cord, or retina that can lead stroke-like symptoms but not damaging brain cells Blood supply interruption leads to lack of oxygen in the brain.
Are minor strokes serious?A minor stroke may indicate that a more serious stroke is imminent. Compared to the general population, a person who has had a mild stroke has a five-fold higher risk of having an ischemic stroke in the next two years. People who have had a minor stroke should see a doctor regularly.
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which information will the nurse include when teaching a client with intermittent claudication in the lower legs?
Answer:
Explanation:
When teaching a client with intermittent claudication in the lower legs, the nurse would likely include information about the causes of the condition, such as peripheral artery disease or atherosclerosis, as well as risk factors, such as smoking and diabetes. They would also likely discuss the typical symptoms of intermittent claudication, such as cramping, pain, or weakness in the legs during physical activity. They would teach the client how to manage symptoms through lifestyle changes such as exercise and diet, as well as through medications and/or other treatments such as angioplasty or bypass surgery. Additionally, the nurse would teach the client how to recognize when symptoms are becoming severe and when to seek medical attention.
the nurse is preparing medication for a 30-month-old with right otitis media. the child weighs 33 pounds. the health care provider has ordered cephalexin, 50 mg/kg/day in divided doses every 8 hours. the medication concentration is 250mg/5ml. how many milliliters should the nurse give the toddler at each dose?
Since the dosage for the drug is 250mg/5ml, the nurse should give the youngster 5 milliliters every time.
What is otitis?A inner ear infection called otitis media causes swelling, redness, or fluid buildup behind the eardrum. Anyone can get a middle ear infection, but infants between both the age of six and 15 months are the ones who get them the most commonly. Tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy is the sole procedure for treating chronic otitis media and cholesteatoma. These disorders cannot be cured by medications. The removal of all infection and cholesteatoma is the main objective of surgery for chronic otitis media and cholesteatoma.
How is otitis prevented?Urging kids to consume wholesome foods like fruit and veggies. advising kids to wash their hands, use a tissue to blow their nose, and dispose of the tissue afterward. avoiding putting anything in a child's ear unless a health care provider specifically instructs you to. avoiding smoking near children.
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medical screening to determine the priority of treatment
A nurse's triage is not an MSE. In most hospitals, triage is used to ascertain the kind and seriousness of a patient's complaint and to decide the order in which patients are examined by a doctor.
Which four sorts of screening are there?Although seven words are used to characterise them: case-finding, mass screening, multiphasic screening, opportunistic screening, periodic health assessment, prescriptive screening, and focused screening, there currently appear to be four main goals of screening.
Which two screening techniques are there?It forecasts the propensity for someone to have or develop a specific condition. Organized screening programmes and opportunistic screening programmes are the two types of screening.
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the nurse is collecting data on a newly admitted client with conversion disorder. the nurse knows which voluntary motor or sensory function deficits might be present in this client? select all that apply
The nurse is aware of any potential deficiencies in this client's voluntary motor or sensory functions.
1.Paralysis
3.Blindness
4.Paresthesia
5.Movement disorder
How does conversion disorder develop?current severe stress, or recent mental or physical trauma. having a mental illness, such as an anxiety or mood problem, dissociative disorder, or specific personality disorders. having a family member who suffers from a neurological disorder or symptoms. having a background of childhood neglect or sexual or physical abuse.
Can speech be impacted by conversion disorder?Any speech issue that is the result of one or more different psychological processes is referred to be a psychogenic speech disorder. Anxiety, depression, conversion disorders, and emotional reactions to stressful events are examples of this, although they are not the only ones.
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Complete question is:
the nurse is collecting data on a newly admitted client with conversion disorder. the nurse knows which voluntary motor or sensory function deficits might be present in this client? select all that apply
1.Paralysis
2.Incoordination
3.Blindness
4.Paresthesia
5.Movement disorder
the nurse is checking a child for dehydration and documents that the child is moderately dehydrated. which symptoms would be noted in determining this finding? select all that apply.
Oliguria. Somewhat recessed fontanels. mucous membranes feel quite dry. Patients with mild dehydration should get oral rehydration therapy.
There are several symptoms, including nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, fever, decreased oral intake, inability to stop further losses, decreased urine output, deteriorating into lethargy, and hypovolemic shock. Infants who are nursing should keep doing so. Drinks having a lot of sugar in them should be avoided because they can make diarrhoea worse. Age-appropriate foods can be served to kids on a regular basis in tiny portions.
Slight dehydration
The Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report advises giving 50 to 100 millilitres of oral rehydration solution per kilogramme of body weight over the course of two to four hours to make up for the expected fluid deficit, with more oral rehydration solution given to make up for continued losses.
The complete question is:
the nurse is checking a child for dehydration and documents that the child is moderately dehydrated. which symptoms would be noted in determining this finding? select all that apply.
Oliguria
Urine output
Slightly sunken fontanels
Limit concentrated sweets
Very dry, mucous membranes
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from a population perspective, what are three key health behaviors that can increase longevity and reduce risk of disease?
Three key health behaviors that can increase longevity and reduce disease risk are following a balanced diet, getting regular exercise, and practicing stress management.
Three key health behaviors that can increase longevity and reduce disease risk are following a balanced diet, getting regular exercise, and practicing stress management. A balanced diet includes eating a variety of fruits, vegetables, and whole grains, while limiting processed foods and foods high in saturated fat, trans fats, and added sugars. Regular exercise can improve cardiovascular health, help control blood pressure and cholesterol levels, and reduce the risk of diabetes. Stress management is important for physical and mental health, and can include activities such as yoga, deep breathing, and mindfulness. Making these behaviors part of your daily routine can help you enjoy a longer and healthier life.
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which instruction would the nurse provide to the client with hemiparesis who is learning to ambulate with a cane?
The instruction that nurse would be given to client with hemiparesis who is learning to ambulate with a cane is to shorten the stride of the unaffected extremity. Because it will help the client to speed up the healing process.
What is hemiparesis?Hemiparesis define as weakness or the uncapable to move of one side of the body that make hard to perform everyday activities such eating, walking or dressing. The most common cause of the Hemiparesis are stroke, brain damage because of trauma, brain damage because of head injuries and brain tumors caused by cancer.
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you are using an aed on an 82-year-old woman in cardiac arrest. she is frail and only weighs about 105 pounds, so you should use pediatric aed pads. true or false?
No, pediatric AED cannot be used for old age people.
Automated external defibrillator pads (also known as AED electrode pads) are an important part of life-saving AED devices. These pads are placed on the bare chest of a person suspected of having a sudden cardiac arrest (SCA).
Pediatric AED pads should never be used on adult patients. Not designed to effectively shock adult cardiac arrest patients. These pads are designed for toddlers and children under 8 and under 55 pounds. Pediatric pads should be used for children under 8 years old or weighing less than 25 kg. If pediatric electrodes are not available, standard (adult) electrodes can be used. If you are using standard (adult) electrodes, do not let the electrodes touch each other.
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the family of an older adult seeks medical attention for the client because of an increase in inappropriate responses and avoidance of social interactions. on which body area will the nurse focus when assessing the client?
Within first day of life, the infant is typically given a comprehensive physical examination by the doctor. Weight, length, and head circumference measurements are taken before the examination even begins.
What does the term "weight" mean?
However, scientists use the term "weight" specifically to refer to the impact of an object's gravity. The gravitational force that pulls an object toward the center of a huge object, such the Earth or the Moon, is measured by its weight. The weight of an object differs from its mass.
What elements influence a child's weight?
When that comes to growth (height), everything matters, including hormones, environment, age, sex, nutrition, regular exercise, health issues, and genetics.
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which information would the nurse provide when teaching parents about the nutritional needs of their 15-year-old child? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
When educating parents on the nutritional requirements of their 15-year-old child, the nurse would present information. Adolescents from underrepresented.
What exactly is adolescence?Between the ages of 10 and 19, adolescence is the stage of existence between childhood and adulthood. It is a distinct period in human development and crucial for setting the groundwork for long-term health.
Teenagers grow quickly in terms of their physical, cognitive, and emotional development. The period of development and growth between childhood and maturity is known as adolescence.
Any person between the ages of 10 and 19 is considered an adolescent by the World Health Organization (WHO). Pay attention to how it sounds. Concerning a disease's psychological, emotional, economic, and spiritual side effects.
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a nurse is reviewing the teaching plan about heart failure with a client. the nurse determines that learning in the affective domain has been achieved based on which client statement?
A client and a nurse are discussing the heart failure lesson plan. Based on the statement option(a)i.e, "I realize now just how important it is to watch how much salt I use," the nurse decides that learning in the affective domain has been accomplished.
A chronic condition at which point the heart doesn't push ancestry in addition it should. Heart failure can happen if the essence cannot inject (systolic) or fill (diastolic) adequately. Treatments can contain eating less seasoning, confining fluid consumption, and taking formula drugs. In a few cases, a defibrillator or pacemaker can be inserted.
Excessive sodium intake is linked to water memory, and it is further a risk determinant for high ancestry pressure. Both overdone sodium consumption and extreme blood pressure are bigger risk determinants for expanding heart failure, and for precipitating complexities in those accompanying existing heart attacks.
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The complete question is:
A nurse is reviewing the teaching plan about heart failure with a client. The nurse determines that learning in the affective domain has been achieved based on which client statement?
"I realize now just how important it is to watch how much salt I use."
Injury risk associated with mother's ignorance of child safety
delivering a leaflet about insulin injections to the client's mother
regulated medical waste falls into which dot hazard class
Regulated medical trash is classified as PG II packaging. Rgulated Medical Waste, n.o.s. is its correct shipping name, and it belongs in Hazard Class 6, Division 6.
What is Hazardous Materials?Hazardous substances, hazardous waste, marine pollutants, elevated temperature material, and hazardous substances (6) Materials that match the definitions in Part 173, as well as (5) Materials listed in 172.101. CONTROLLED BY THE US D.O.T.
UN3373 refers to medical waste.
The term "Biological substance, Category B" and the identification number UN3373 must be used to describe infectious substances in Category B. Medical waste that is subject to regulation must be given the identification number UN3291 and is excluded from this.
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Full question:
Regulated medical waste falls into which hazard class?
a. Hazard Class 6
b. Hazard Class 5
c. Hazard Class 1
d. None
a factory worker has presented to the occupational health nurse with a small wood splinter in his left eye. the nurse has assessed the affected eye and irrigated with warm tap water, but the splinter remains in place. what should the nurse do next?
For the factory worker with a small wood splinter in his left eye, the nurse should arrange the worker to be examined promptly by an ophthalmologist (eye specialist).
What is an ophthalmologist?An ophthalmologist is a doctor who specializes in ophthalmology. Ophthalmologists differ from optometrists in their level of training and what they can diagnose and treat.
Which doctor is best for vision?For general eye care, either an ophthalmologist or an optometrist are good options. Both can perform a comprehensive advanced eye examination. Write prescriptions for eyeglasses and contact lenses.
Who is an ophthalmologist or optician?An optician is a technician who adjusts eyeglasses, contact lenses, and other vision-correcting devices. Optometrists examine, diagnose, and treat patients' eyes. An ophthalmologist provides medical and surgical treatment of eye diseases.
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a health care provider diagnoses primary osteoporosis in a client who has lost bone mass. for which client is primary osteoporosis most common? group of answer choices
A health care provider diagnoses primary osteoporosis in a client who has lost bone mass. For elderly postmenopausal woman client is primary osteoporosis most common.
Low bone mass, deteriorating bone tissue, and disruption of the bone microarchitecture are all symptoms of osteoporosis, which can decrease bone strength and raise the risk of fractures. The most prevalent bone disease in people, osteoporosis, is a serious public health issue. Women, older persons, and Caucasians are more likely to experience it. Like hypertension, osteoporosis increases the risk of fracture.
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a nurse is caring for a client who has neutropenia resulting from chemotherapy. which precaution would be least appropriate to include when caring for this client?
The least precaution to be taken by the nurse with the client having neutropenia is checking the rectal temperatures.
Neutropenia occurs when levels of neutrophils, a type of white blood cell, are low. All white blood cells help the body fight infections, but neutrophils are important in fighting certain infections, especially those caused by bacteria. You don't know something Common causes include HIV, hepatitis, tuberculosis, sepsis, and Lyme disease. cancer:
Cancer and other blood and bone marrow diseases, including leukemia and lymphoma, can prevent the body from making enough healthy white blood cells, leading to neutropenia. Neutropenia is a common side effect of cancer or cancer treatment that patients should be aware. It is a side effect of chemotherapy.
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a cooling blanket is prescribed for a child with a fever. the nurse prepares to use the cooling blanket and would avoid which action?
The nurse prepares to use the cooling blanket and would avoid keeping the child uncovered to assist in reducing the fever.
In hotter climates or for those who become overheated while sleeping, cooling blankets may be helpful. Anecdotal testimony indicates that cooling blankets work effectively to deliver a cooler and more comfortable sleep temperature, despite the dearth of scientific research on the topic.
An acute increase in body temperature is referred to as a fever. It represents a portion of the immune system's entire reaction. Infections frequently result in fever. An painful fever may be experienced by most kids and adults. However, it typically isn't a cause for alarm.
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hypoxemia triggers the production of erythropoietin. erythropoietin increased the rate of erythropoiesis. this an example of ?
Negative feedback control
Hypoxemia triggers the production of erythropoietin. erythropoietin increased the rate of erythropoiesis. This an example of negative feedback.
What do you mean by negative feedback?A negative feedback mechanism, often known as negative feedback homeostasis, is a pathway that is triggered by a deviation in output and produces changes in output in the opposite direction of the initial deviation.
Also known as an inhibitory loop, a negative feedback loop allows the body to regulate itself. The process starts when there is an increase in output from a body system, which results in higher levels of certain proteins or hormones.
Another example of negative feedback is the regulation of the blood calcium level. The parathyroid glands secrete parathyroid hormone, which regulates the level of calcium in the blood. If calcium decreases, the parathyroid glands sense the decrease and secrete more parathyroid hormone.
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a 45-year-old woman is admitted after undergoing a hysterectomy. she has been immobile for 2 days. she has a 20-year history of smoking. she also takes oral estrogen to manage her hot flashes. as a nurse assesses the client, she notices that the client's left leg is dark purple and measures 2 inches (5 cm) larger than her right leg. what is the client most at risk for?
The client who is most at risk for a pulmonary embolism, according on the information provided.
What happens to a woman's body after a hysterectomy?Your never longer have cycles after having your uterus removed, and you are unable to become pregnant. Your might not exhibit more signs of menopause, though, if your ovaries are still producing hormones. Due to surgery's potential to have obstructed blood supply to the follicles, you may experience hot flashes, a menopause sign.
What are the signs you need a hysterectomy?Your doctor might suggest a hysterectomy for a number of reasons, some of which are as continues to follow: endometrial fibroids, also classified as benign (non-cancerous) tumors. The most frequent justification for hysterectomy is uterine fibroids. extremely heavy periods that happen regularly.
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What kind of repair code would be used to report a layered closure of the extensive cleaning of a heavily contaminated wound?
Answer:
Intermediate Repair
the nurse is providing nutrition instructions for a client who has inflammatory bowel disease of the ascending colon. which suggestion by the nurse is appropriate?
The recommendation that an ascending colon inflammatory bowel disease(IBD)patient consume scrambled eggs and applesauce
The condition in which the tissues in your digestive tract have experienced persistent (chronic) inflammation is referred to as "inflammatory bowel disease" (IBD).
Low-residue foods like eggs and applesauce result in less fecal waste, which lessens intestinal contents and pain. Calories provide you with energy, while protein aids in healing. Hot barbecued meals can hasten peristalsis, as can fatty foods. Fruit and pungent, aged cheese may irritate the intestines. Chunky peanut butter and whole wheat bread are high-residue (high-fiber) foods.
For other people, IBD is just a minor illness. Others are extremely frail due to a condition that is potentially fatal.
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hat type of progress addresses issues such as public health and sanitation that affect the poorest people, which in turn improves water quality and other environmental issues? progress
Social progress improves water quality and other environmental problems by addressing problems that the poorest people face, like public health and sanitation.
Social Progress is even to tangible quality cause it is humankind's concern that ends the effect of the environment. The plan of the organic park's search helps support character conservation- and to supply the public approach to everyday advantage and outdoor games.
Public health is "the skill and cunning of hampering disease, extending growth and advancing health through the systematized exertions and cognizant selections of society, arrangements, public and private, societies and things". Sanitation mediations primarily benefit community health by lowering the predominance of pertaining to stomach pathogenic illnesses, that cause dysentery. Health benefits are fulfilled and amassed to the direct recipients of cleanliness attacks and again to their neighbors and so forth in their communities.
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a client experiences occasional right upper quadrant pain attributed to cholecystitis. to prevent or minimize dyspepsia, the nurse would instruct the client to avoid which food items?
An infrequent right upper quadrant ache in a client is thought to be caused by cholecystitis. Clear fluid diets are safe when used temporarily and in accordance with medical advice.
Which nutrients are required following surgery?Infection prevention requires notably high levels of vitamin D, zinc, and l - ascorbic acid After surgery, nutrient-rich beverages and smoothies can help you eat enough calories and nutrients if you don't feel like eating for a day or two. Good options include Carnation Quick Breakfast, Ensure, Boost, and Sustacal.
What falls under your purview as a nurse to guarantee the patient is receiving the proper diet?The task of making ensuring that patients' and clients' nutritional requirements are addressed falls under the purview of nurses. To promote healthy eating and hence better health outcomes, it is crucial to offer nutrition assessment and appropriate nutrition guidance.
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julianne green is being admitted for induction of labor. the certified nurse midwife has ordered oxytocin 30 units/500 ml iv to be started at 1 milliunit/min. what will you set for the rate in ml/hr on the pump?
3 mL/hr. To figure out the pump drip rate for this client, the nurse needs perform a lot of computations. The nurse must first calculate how many milliunits there are in a volume of 1000 mL of fluid: 1000 mL with 10 units
Are flow rate and drip rate equivalent?The amount of DROPS the IV fluid is dropping at is referred to as the drip rate. So, you'd be keeping track of droplets per minute. The pace at which an IV solution enters a vein is referred to as flow rate.
How is drip per hour determined?If you just need to calculate the infusion rate, or the amount of medication to infuse each hour, divide the entire volume in mL by the total number of hours the medication was prescribed.
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an older adult is returned to the surgical unit after having a subtotal gastrectomy. the nurse anticipates that which dietary modification will be prescribed?
Continue with small, easily digested feedings gradually will be prescribed by the nurse to the old adult client who had subtotal gastrectomy.
In general, health care providers prevent the dumping syndrome by changing the diet after surgery. Changes may include eating smaller portions or restricting foods high in sugar. More severe cases of dumping syndrome may require medication or surgery. This aims to ensure the complete removal of the tumor by providing adequate longitudinal and circumferential resection margins. Subtotal gastrectomy is the gold standard treatment for early gastric cancer located in the distal third of the stomach. A gastrectomy is a major operation, and recovery takes a long time. You will usually stay in the hospital for 1 to 2 weeks after surgery and may be given direct intravenous nutrition until you can eat and drink again.
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a client is returning home after having a bone marrow aspiration and biopsy. what which statement indicates that teaching by the nurse has been effective
The statement that indicates teaching by the nurse has been effective is "The area might ache for 1 to 2 days”.
Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy can determine if your bone marrow is healthy and producing enough blood cells. These techniques are used by doctors to identify and monitor blood and marrow illnesses, such as certain malignancies, as well as fevers of unknown cause. Typically, a bone marrow aspiration is performed first. The physician will draw a little liquid sample of bone marrow cells through the needle with a syringe. As the needle is driven into your bone, you may feel pressure. When the marrow is extracted, you will feel a tugging sensation.
A biopsy is a common medical technique performed by a surgeon, interventional radiologist, or interventional cardiologist. The procedure involves the extraction of specimen cells or tissues for analysis to diagnose the presence or severity of a disease. Biopsies are commonly connected with cancer, however simply because a doctor prescribes one does not imply that one has cancer.
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which type of nursing diagnosis consists of the problem and defining characteristics as its structural components
Health promotion diagnosis consists of "problems" and "determining the characteristics of structural components".
The problem, along with the definition of the traits, explains the central idea of health promotion diagnostics. The main topic of health promotion diagnostics is the motivation for improving the standard of living. It is characterized by the development of new strategies for improved coping mechanisms. Defining problems and features does not explain the diagnosis of syndromes, risk factors, and acute conditions. The question describes the diagnostic process of the syndrome with or without defining relevant factors and features. Defining the problem, associated factors, and features describe the diagnostic process in acute conditions. Defining Problems and Characteristics/Risk Factors describes the process of diagnosing risk factors.
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which body system effects would the nurse state as occurring due to immobility? select all that apply.
The body system effects occurring due to immobility are: (A) Increased cardiac workload; E) Increased risk for renal calculi; and F) Increased risk for electrolyte imbalance.
Immobility is defined as the condition of the body where its physical movement is limited or completely lost. The individual suffering from immobility is either partially or completely dependent on another person or equipment for the movement.
Renal calculi in simple terms are called the kidney stone. These are the hard deposits of minerals and salts that form inside the kidneys. The condition of presence of renal calculi is very painful for the person.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
Which body system effects would the nurse state as occurring due to immobility? Select all that apply.
A) Increased cardiac workload
B) Increased depth of respiration
C) Increased rate of respiration
D) Decreased urinary stasis
E) Increased risk for renal calculi
F) Increased risk for electrolyte imbalance
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a woman has preinvasive cancer of the cervix. in discussing available treatments, the nurse includes what
The treatments the nurse includes for the pre-invasive cancer of cervix are: Cryosurgery, laser surgery, and loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP).
Cancer is the disease that generates when the normal cells of the body start dividing uncontrollably. These cells form a mass of cells called tumor. When this tumor starts migrating to other parts of the body, thus property is called metastasis and the disease is termed as cancer.
Cryosurgery is a type of surgical procedure where a frozen liquid or some instrument, called a cryoprobe are used to destroy the abnormal cells of the body. The treatment is directed to the specific damaged cells of the body and hence no normal cells are lost.
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a client who has had a myocardial infarction is being discharged. the client asks the nurse when sexual activity can be resumed. which response by the nurse is correct?
The client can resume sexual activity at least between 4 and 6 weeks after the myocardial infarction (heart attack), the point at which two flights of stairs can be climbed without dyspnea.
Myocardial infarction is the death of a portion of the heart's myocardium. It is caused when the blood supply to the myocardium is cut off due to complete blockage of the supplying arterial branch. Myocardial infarction is also known as a heart attack. The client is recommended to resume activies like sexual activities, which require energy just like any other exercise, when he/she/they can climb two flights of stairs without dyspnea. Dyspnea refers to the breathing condition in which a person has difficulty breathing. One feels as if he or she is not getting enough air into their lungs. Pushing your heart to pump more blood during this stage can have negative effect on your heart and your life.
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when educating a client about the risks of malignant melanoma, what would you know to include? (mark all that apply.)
In educating a client about malignant melanoma risk, I would include:
Immunosuppression (A)Red or light hair (C)Freckles (D)Immunosuppression: People who have a weakened immune system, either due to a medical condition or medication, have an increased risk of developing malignant melanoma. This is because the immune system plays a critical role in identifying and fighting cancer cells.
Red or light hair: People with red or light hair are more susceptible to developing malignant melanoma than those with darker hair. This is because they have less melanin, the pigment that provides some protection from the sun's harmful ultraviolet (UV) rays.
Freckles: Freckles are a common sign of sun damage, which is a major risk factor for malignant melanoma. People who have many freckles or who develop them at a young age are more likely to develop malignant melanoma than those without freckles.
Age greater than 60 and female gender are not necessarily risk factors for malignant melanoma, but fair skin, a family history of melanoma, moles, and sun exposure are some of the other key risk factors that should be taken into account when educating patients about this cancer. Early detection and regular skin exams can greatly improve the chances of a successful treatment.
This question should be provided with answer choices, which are:
A. ImmunosuppressionB. Age older than 60C. Red or light hairD. FrecklesE. Female genderThe correct answers are A, C and D.
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