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The value of f(15), to the nearest hundredth is 253.88

The standard exponential equation is given as:

If f(4.5) = 16, then;

16 = ab^4.5 ..............1

Similarly, if f(9.5) = 60, then:

60 = ab^9.5 ........................... 2

Dividing both equations will give:

60/16 = ab^9.5/ab^4.5

60/16 = b^9.5-4.5

60/16 = b^5

3.75 = b^5

b = 1.3

Get the value of a. Recall that;

60 = ab^9.5

60 = a(1.3)^9.5

60 = 12.09a

a = 60/12.09

a = 4.96

Get the value of f(15)

f()15 = 4.96(1.3)^15

f(15) = 4.96(51.18)

f(15) = 253.88

Hence the value of f(15), to the nearest hundredth is 253.88

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Answer:

1 3/8   D

Step-by-step explanation:

The first and most obvious part of the answer is that the paper clip is at least 1 inch long. The question is how much longer?

It is between 1/4 of an inch and 1/2 of an inch. In fact it is exactly half way between them.

So that resembles an average.

(1/4 + 1/2)/2 = (1/4 + 2/4) / 2 = (3/4)/2

[tex]\frac{\frac{3}{4} }{2} = \frac{\frac{3}{4} }{\frac{2}{1} }[/tex]

Now the trick is to invert the denominator (make it 1/2) and multiply

3/4 * 1/2 = 3/8

A = 180-90-31

A = 59

Answer: 59

Answer:

A = 12√3

Step-by-step explanation:

first find the limits by finding the zeros

0 = 9 − 3x²

3x² = 9

x² = 3

x = ±[tex]\sqrt{3}[/tex]

[tex]A = \int\limits^a_b ({9 - 3x^2\\}) - 0\, dx[/tex]

where b = [tex]-\sqrt{3}[/tex] and a = [tex]\sqrt{3\\}[/tex]

A = 9x - x³ [tex]\left \{ {{\sqrt{3} } \atop {-\sqrt{3} }} \right.[/tex]

[tex]A = 9\sqrt{3} - \sqrt{3} ^3 - (9(-\sqrt{3)} - (-\sqrt{3} )^3)[/tex]

[tex]A = 9\sqrt{3} -3\sqrt{3} +9\sqrt{3} - 3\sqrt{3}[/tex]

[tex]A = 12\sqrt{3}[/tex]

Answer:

x²+1/x² = 51

Explanation:

Given x - 1/x = 7 ---(1)

We know the algebraic identity:

a²+b²-2ab = (a-b)²

Or

a²+b² = (a-b)²+2ab

Now,

x²+1/x²

= (x-1/x)²+2*x*(1/x)

= (x-1/x)²+2

:7²+2 [ from (1)] =

= 49+2

= 51

Therefore,

x²+1/x² = 51

Answer:

39

Step-by-step explanation:

d = s - 15

d + s = 63

Replace d with s - 15

s - 15 + s = 63

2s -15 = 63

2s = 78

s = 39

[tex]y = 7sin(z)\implies 0 = 7sin(z)\implies 0=sin(z)\implies sin^{-1}(0)=sin^{-1}[sin(z)] \\\\\\ sin^{-1}(0)=z\implies 0=z[/tex]

The measure of angle P is 29 degrees

The sum of an interior angle of a triangle is 180 degrees. Given the following parameters:

Taking the sum and equating to 180 degrees:

m<M + m<N + m<P = 180 degrees

15x + 5 + 3x + 2 + 5x - 11 = 180

23x - 4 = 180

23x = 184

x = 184/23

x = 8

Get the measure of m<P

m<P = 5x - 11

m<P = 5(8) - 11

m<P = 40 - 11

m<P = 29 degrees

Hence the measure of angle P is 29 degrees

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Answer:

5

x

2

−

11

(

x

)

+

6

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]5x^2-11x+6\\\\=5x^2-5x-6x+6\\\\=5x(x-1) - 6(x-1)\\\\=(x-1)(5x-6)[/tex]

Answer:

no because there is a 10 which make it not proportional

Step-by-step explanation:

hope that helps.

Answer: No they are not proportional because the last row has -10 which obstructs the whole relationship.

Answer:

0.1536

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a binomial probability distribution with 2 successes in 4 trials.

The chance of a success is 1/5 =  0.2.

So there needs to be 2 successes and 2 failures in the 4 plays.

Reqd. Probability is 4C2*(0.2)^2(0.8)^2

= 0.1536.

Answer:

$245

Step-by-step explanation:

0.7 * 350 = 245

The normal price of the television, if The normal price of a television is reduced by 30% in a sale, The sale price of the television is £350, is £500.

The price at which something sells or is purchased following a price reduction. The cost that something is sold for. In other words, the price at which something is sold to a customer is called the sale price

Given:

The normal price of a television is reduced by 30% in a sale,

The sale price of the television is £350,

Write the equation of the above statement as shown below,

Normal price - 30% of normal price = Sale price

Substitute the value,

Normal price(1 - 0.30) = £350  

Normal price = 350 / 0.7

Normal price = £500

To know more about the sale price:

https://brainly.com/question/28932962

#SPJ2

Answer:

3) x=18 , -8

Step-by-step explanation:

hi

hope it helps you

Answer:

The answer is b

Step-by-step explanation:

During the 8-9 , Mr hare travel 40miles

For the time 9 onwards they travel concurrently,

Let x be the distance covered by both since they can only meet if they covered the sams distance,

x/50 = x/40 -1 ,where the 1 is the (8-9) 1 hr

x/40 - x/50 = 1

x = 200

Time take by Mr Hare = 200/ 40 = 5

from 8 add 5 hours will be 1

Note, i took this answer from an answer from another answer.

Answer: 13 ÷ 4 = 3.25 or [tex]\frac{13}{4} = 3.25[/tex] (Both means the same thing but you can pick which equation you want0

Step-by-step explanation: Hope this helps! :D

The way to balance a firm's need to succeed and the need for not asking the workers for perfection is through the offering of training to workers, which allows them to notably improve their performances autonomously, without this being directly instigated by the company's directory.

That is, through the education of workers in the different areas of their jobs, the level of the same will be improved and better results will be obtained.

Learn more about perfectionism in https://brainly.com/question/7277328

Answer:

63 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

The hint tells you that you can add the other 2 angles in the triangle to get the answer.

Answer:

-4x-5

Step-by-step explanation:

(3-6x)-(8-2x) = 3-8+2x-6x = -4x - 5

Answer:

I Know the answer but it has too many steps-by-step explanation so I cant tell comment and mark me brainliest.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-3) -23

0) -8

3) 7

6) 22

Step-by-step explanation:

Plug in the x value for each function and solve for y

Answer:

-3) -23

0) -8

3) 7

6) 22

Step-by-step explanation:

Formula:

We know that

nth term of the AP is Tn = a+(n-1)d

Where, a = First term

d = Common difference

n = number of terms

Now,

Given that

pth term of the A.P. = Tp = q

⇛a + (p-1)d = q

⇛(p-1)d = q - a

⇛d = (q-a)/(p-1) →→→→(i)

and

qth term of the A.P. = Tq = p

⇛a + (q-1) d = p

⇛ (q-1)d = p-a

⇛ d = (p-a)/(q-1) →→→→(ii)

From Eqn(i) and Eqn(ii)

⇛(q-a)/(p-1) = (p-a)/(q-1)

On applying cross multiplication then

⇛(q-a)×(q-1) = (p-a)×(p-1)

⇛q²-q-aq+a = p²-p-ap+a

⇛q²-q-aq = p²-p-ap

⇛ap-aq = p²-p+q-q²

⇛a(p-q) = (p²-q²)-(p-q)

⇛a(p-q) = (p+q)(p-q)-(p-q)

⇛ a(p-q) = (p-q){(p+q)-1}

On cancelling (p-q) both sides then

⇛a = (p+q-1) →→→→Eqn(iii)

On Substituting the value of a in Eqn(ii) then

⇛ d = [p-(p+q-1)]/(q-1)

⇛d = (p-p-q+1)/(q-1)

⇛d = (-q+1)/(q-1)

⇛d = -(q-1)/(q-1)

⇛d = -1

We have,

a = p+q-1 and d = -1

Now, rth term of the AP

⇛ Tr = a + (r-1)d

⇛Tr = (p+q-1)+(r-1)(-1)

⇛ Tr = p+q-1+(-r+1)

⇛ Tr = p+q-1-r+1

⇛ Tr = p+q-r

Therefore, Tr = p+q-r

Answer: rth term of the given A.P. is p+q-r

Answer:

rth=q+p+qxp

Step-by-step explanation:

rth= 3 of the T and Tq added together and joined.

Answer:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

29 % 3 = 9

3x9 = 27

29 - 27 = 2

Answer: 5^2.48 is honestly as close as you can get.

Answer:

3-4 days

Step-by-step explanation:

So, if Elton works at each job for 5 hours, he will get $95. He would keep on doing this for 2-3 days. He would get $190 in total. The next day, he could get his $10 for being a store clerk. 190 + 10 = 200. And that's how Elton would make $200 in less than one week!

Answer:

B = 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

First work out 8/2. Okay so how many 2's go into 8? 4.

We now have B + 4 = 6.

Now that we've simplified it a bit we can do a reverse equation and turn it into subtraction.

Take the answer (6) and 4 and put them into a subtraction equation,

6 - 4. And simple subtraction should be easy so 6 - 4 = 2.

So B equals 2. Let's check it! 2 + 4 = 6. I think that sounds right so that will be the answer. B=2.

Hope that helps. x

Step-by-step explanation:

in total we have 3+4 = 7 balls.

when we draw the first ball, the probability to draw a red ball is 3/7, and a blue ball 4/7.

when we draw the second ball, we have now only 6 balls in total.

the probabilty to draw a red back now depends also on the result of the first draw.

if the first ball was already red, then we have only a chance now of 2 out of 6.

if the first ball was blue, then we have now a chance of 3 out of 6.

so, the probably to draw at least 1 red ball in 2 draws is the probability of drawing one on the first draw plus the probability of drawing one on the second :

1 - probability to see 2 blue balls

1 - 4/7 × 3/6 = 1 - 12/42 = 30/42 = 0.714285714...

the expected number of red balls in 2 draws is

1 red in first red in first red in second

but not second and second but not first

1×(3/7 × 4/6) + 2×(3/7 × 2/6) + 1×(4/7 × 3/6) = 12/42 + 12/42 + 12/42 = 36/42 = 6/7 = 0.857142857 ≈ 0.8571

Answer:

It does not, unless [tex]x=0[/tex] or [tex]x=1[/tex]

If you remember how to raise a power to a given power you remember to multiply the exponents (or, if you don't, apply the definition of [tex](x^3)^3=(x^3)(x^3)(x^3)=x^9[/tex]

At this point you're being asked if [tex]x^9=x^6[/tex] and the only two numbers for which this is true are 0 and 1 (side note: if the left hand side was an even function also [tex]-1[/tex] was a possible candidate, but alas 9 is odd).