1/20
Streak
A radio station is giving away a $100 bill to every 30th caller and movie tickets to every
40th caller. Which caller will be the first to win both prizes?

Answer:

6 pencils

18 pencils

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that

36 pencils are in 6 packs

Number of packs = 6

Number of pencils = 36

Number of pencils per pack :

Number of pencils / number of packs :

36 / 6 = 6

Hence, 6 pencils per pack

Number of pencils in 3 packs :

Since 6 pencils are in a pack ;

Then, 3 packs = (3 * 6) = 18 pencils

Answer:

2/3x-1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

5 to 8  &  5/8

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The area of the square is 15²

the area of a square and the length of its side are directly proportional because The area of the square is x²=> when its edge decreases, the area of ​​the figure decreases

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

(-4) + (-8) + 11 - (-2)

~Simplify

-4 - 8 + 11 + 2

~Subtract

-12 + 11 + 2

~Add

-1 + 2

~Add

1

Best of Luck!

Answer:

No

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

21.600  :)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

11x+11

Step-by-step explanation:

4x+8+7x-3=11x+11

Hope this helps :D

Answer:

11x + 11

Step-by-step explanation:

( 4x + 8 ) + ( 7x + 3 )

Remove parenthesis;

Note: Remember, the associate property states that if an equation is either all multiplication or addition, then it can be done in any order, hence the parenthesis holds no weight in this case.

4x + 8 + 7x + 3

Combine like terms;

11x + 11

Answer:

The one in the top left thats a square and the rectangle on far right. ONly those 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The slope is most easily defined as rise over run.

First, find a point you like because it is directly on the line and is where for example starting from the origin which you know should be always (0, 0).

Then find another point that is on the line and is perfectly aligned where on the graph is like (1, 2).

Then, as I said earlier, rise over run. So you climb up from for example the origin which is in the graph and climb up to the (1, 2) point. It should go up two units because it is increasing in intervals of 2 but has the notches in the half mark of 1.

So the rise is 2 because it climbed from 0 to 2.

The run is running from the 0 in the origin on the x-axis and running to the 1 because it is (1, 2) where it is in the form (x,y).

Since it is rise over run, the rise is 2 and the run is 1 so 2 over 1 is 2.

Hence the slope is 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

true!

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: The  y=2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

90% of people marry there 7th grade love. since u have read this, u will be told good news tonight. if u don't pass this on nine comments your worst week starts now this isn't fake. apparently if u copy and paste this on ten comments in the next ten minutes you will have the best day of your life tomorrow. you will either get kissed or asked out in the next 53 minutes someone will say i love

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x = 5

x = 2

x = -6

Step-by-step explanation:

Use synthetic division to determine whether x – 4 is a factor of:

–2x5 + 6x4 + 10x3 – 6x2 – 9x + 4

For x – 4 to be a factor, you must have x = 4 as a zero. Using this information, I'll do the synthetic division with x = 4 as the test zero on the left:

completed division

Since the remainder is zero, then x = 4 is indeed a zero of –2x5 + 6x4 + 10x3 – 6x2 – 9x + 4, so:

Yes, x – 4 is a factor of –2x5 + 6x4 + 10x3 – 6x2 – 9x + 4

Find all the factors of 15x4 + x3 – 52x2 + 20x + 16 by using synthetic division.

Remember that, if x = a is a zero, then x – a is a factor. So use the Rational Roots Test (and maybe a quick graph) to find a good value to test for a zero (x-intercept). I'll try x = 1:

completed division

This division gives a zero remainder, so x = 1 must be a zero, which means that  x – 1 is a factor. Since I divided a linear factor (namely, x – 1) out of the original polynomial, then my result has to be a cubic: 15x3 + 16x2 – 36x – 16. So I need to find another zero before I can apply the Quadratic Formula. I'll try x = –2:

completed division

Since I got a zero remainder, then x = –2 is a zero, so x + 2 is a factor. Plus, I'm now down to a quadratic, 15x2 – 14x – 8, which happens to factor as:

(3x – 4)(5x + 2)

Then the fully-factored form of the original polynomial is:

15x4 + x3 – 52x2 + 20x + 16

= (x – 1)(x + 2)(3x – 4)(5x + 2)

Given that  x = -3 + sqrt(11)   is a zero of x4 + 6x3 – 7x2 – 30x + 10, fully solve the

equation x4 + 6x3 – 7x2 – 30x + 10 = 0.

Since they have given me one of the zeroes, I'll use synthetic division to divide it out:

completed division

(You will probably want to use scratch paper for the computations required when manipulating the radical root.) Copyright © Elizabeth Stapel 2002-2011 All Rights Reserved

Since you only get these square-root answers by using the Quadratic Formula, and since the square-root part of the Formula is preceded by a "plus-minus" sign, then these square-root answers must always come in pairs. Thus, if x = -3 + sqrt(11) is a root, then so also must x = -3 - sqrt(11) be a root. So my next step is to divide by x = -3 - sqrt(11):

completed division

I had started with a fourth-power polynomial. After the first division, I was left with a cubic (with very nasty coefficients!). After the second division, I'm now down to a quadratic (x2 + 0x – 5, or just x2 – 5), which I know how to solve:

x = +/- sqrt(5)

Then the full solution is:

x = -3 +/- sqrt(11), +/- sqrt(5)

If you have studied complex numbers, then you may see a problem of the following type.

Given that 2 – i is a zero of x5 – 6x4 + 11x3 – x2 – 14x + 5, fully solve the

equation  x5 – 6x4 + 11x3 – x2 – 14x + 5 = 0.

They have given us a zero, so I'll use synthetic division and divide out 2 – i:

completed division

(You will probably want to use scratch paper for the computations required when doing complex division.)

Recall that, to arrive at a zero of 2 – i, they must have used the Quadratic Formula, which always spits out complex answers in pairs. That is, you get the imaginary part (the part with the "i") from having a negative inside the "plus or minus square-root of" part of the Formula. This means that, since 2 – i is a zero, then 2 + i must also be a zero.  So I'll divide by 2 + i:

completed division

This leaves me with a cubic, so I'll need to find another zero on my own. (That is, I can't apply the Quadratic Formula yet.) I can use the Rational Roots Test to help find potential zeroes, and a quick graph of x3 – 2x2 – 2x + 1 can help. I will try x = –1:

completed division

Now I'm down to a quadratic (x2 – 3x + 1, which happens not to factor), so I'll apply the Quadratic Formula to get:

x = (3 +/- sqrt(5))/2

Then all the zeroes of x5 – 6x4 + 11x3 – x2 – 14x + 5 are given by:

x = 2 - i, 2 + i, (3 - sqrt(5))/2, (3 + sqrt(5))/2, -1

Answer

D

Step-by-step explanation:

y=2x+15

7=2(-4)+15

7=15-8

7=7

7x+2y=-14

7(-4)+2(7)=-14

-28+14=-14

-14=-14

Answer:

P(x)=8x-20

P(x)=8x-(2x+20(

Step-by-step explanation:

We want to imagine where the shading should be, and with that determine which point is a solution for both inequalities. We will see that the solution is the point (7, -8)

In this case, the inqualities are:

You can see that in both cases, y is smaller than the line, thus, for both inequalities, we must shade the part that is below the lines.

With that in mind, the region of solution will be the region that is below both lines at the same time, and that region will be the "triangle" that you can see at the middle below the horizontal axis.

Now that we know the region of solutions, we only need to see which point belongs there, from the given options the only that belongs to that region is the point (7, -8), which means that this point is a solution for both inequalities.

If you want to learn more about inequalities, you can read:

https://brainly.com/question/11234618

Answer:

15

Step-by-step explanation:

60/4= 15 since each angle is 60 degrees

Answer:

x=5 and y=1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Thanks for the free points

Answer:

So, the answer for b is 20.

The way to figure this out is:

angle N is congruent to angle S

angle M is congruent to angle M

side NM is 10

because of the three things above, triangle NHM is congruent to triangle SML because of SAS(side angle side postulate)

Hope that helps! Let me know if it does! ;P

Answer:

2/3

Step-by-step explanation:

3-1/5-2=

2/3

Answer:

the answer is x = 4

Step-by-step explanation:

first you wanna subtract 8 from both sides

then it should look like this...  [tex]4\left(x+3\right)-2x=20[/tex]

then this... 2x+12=20

next you need to subtract 12 from both sides

then it'll look like this 2x=8

then this... [tex]\frac{2x}{2}=\frac{8}{2}[/tex]

lastly your gonna simplify it and and your answer will be...

x = 4

hope this helps :)

Answer:

You would multiply $8200 by .075, giving you 615. Then to find the decrease. Take the starting value (8200) by the end value (615). and you would get 7,585.

Answer:

x=3/8+c/4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

that's fake right?

Step-by-step explanation:

¯\_(ツ)_/¯

Answer:

[tex] \overline{EG} \cong \overline{HK} [/tex]

[tex] \overline{HJ} \cong \overline{EF} [/tex]

[tex] \angle F \cong \angle J [/tex]

[tex] \angle H \cong \angle E [/tex]

∆FGE ≅ ∆JKH

Step-by-step explanation:

Since ∆EFG ≅ ∆HJK, therefore, the corresponding sides and angles of both ∆s are congruent.

Thus:

[tex] \overline{EG} \cong \overline{HK} [/tex]

[tex] \overline{HJ} \cong \overline{EF} [/tex]

[tex] \angle F \cong \angle J [/tex]

[tex] \angle H \cong \angle E [/tex]

∆FGE ≅ ∆JKH (take note of the arrangement of the letters or naming of each vertex of both triangles. Each vertex of in one ∆ must correspond to the vertex of the other for the ∆s to be congruent)

△EFG ≅ △HJK,

From the figure attached we can conclude  that

  [tex]\rm \bar {EG}[/tex] ≅ [tex]\rm \bar {HK}[/tex]

  [tex]\rm \bar HJ[/tex] ≅ [tex]\rm \bar FE[/tex]

   ∠[tex]\rm F[/tex] ≅∠[tex]\rm J[/tex]

   ∠[tex]\rm H[/tex] ≅∠[tex]\rm E[/tex]

△FGE ≅ △JKH

Given that

△EFG ≅ △HJK,

Since △EFG ≅ △HJK is given hence we can conclude that corresponding sides and corresponding angles of both the triangles will be equal.

Two triangles are said to be congruent when they are of similar shape and size means all the angles of one triangle are  equal to the corresponding angles of other triangle and  all the  sides of one triangle are equal to  corresponding sides of other triangle.

From the figure attached we can conclude  that

  [tex]\rm \bar {EG}[/tex] ≅ [tex]\rm \bar {HK}[/tex]

  [tex]\rm \bar HJ[/tex] ≅ [tex]\rm \bar FE[/tex]

   ∠[tex]\rm F[/tex] ≅∠[tex]\rm J[/tex]

   ∠[tex]\rm H[/tex] ≅∠[tex]\rm E[/tex]

△FGE ≅ △JKH

For more information please refer to the link below

https://brainly.com/question/25063327

Answer:

The Value of "A" is 10.0 Inches

The Value of "B" is 35 Inches

Step-by-step explanation:

Got it right on

E D G E N U I T Y 2021

The value of A is 10.

The value of B is 35.

To multiply means to add a number to itself a particular number of times. Multiplication can be viewed as a process of repeated addition.

Given that;

A 3-column table with 2 rows. Column 1 is labeled Scale factor with entries 1, 1.25. Column 2 is labeled Width with entries 8 inches, A. Column 3 is labeled Length with entries 28 inches, B.

Hence, We can formulate;

The value of A = 1.25 × 8

                       = 10

And, The value of B is,

⇒ 1.25 × 28

⇒ 35

Learn more about the multiplication visit:

https://brainly.com/question/10873737

#SPJ6

Answer:

It will take 5.3 years to reach $39,500

Step-by-step explanation:

Compound Interest

It occurs when the interest is reinvested rather than paying it out.

Interest in the next compound period is then earned on the principal sum plus the previously accumulated interest.

The formula is:

[tex]\displaystyle A=P\left(1+{\frac {r}{n}}\right)^{nt}}[/tex]

Where:

A = final amount

P = initial principal balance

r = interest rate

n = number of times interest applied per time period

t = number of time periods elapsed

We are required to find the time needed to convert the principal P into a given final amount.

Solving the above equation for t, we get:

[tex]\displaystyle t=\frac{log(A/P)}{n\cdot log\left(1+r/n\right)}[/tex]

Anne invested P=$28,000 in an account at r=6.5%=0.065 compounded daily. There are 360 days in a year, so n=360. The final amount A=$39,500.

Substituting into the formula:

[tex]\displaystyle t=\frac{log(39,500/28,000)}{360\cdot log\left(1+0.065/360\right)}[/tex]

t=5.3 years

It will take 5.3 years to reach $39,500

Answer:5.3

Step-by-step explanation: